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Why is there so much crackpot physics?

I disagree. Naturalism (with no qualifier) I take to be an ontological position, which, approximately, asserts that there really isn't any such thing as the supernatural.
Good catch...You don't miss much! Of course you're totally correct: by itself naturalism is as you say...I'd originally written my reply differently splitting the term, but it seemed too wordy and a bit hard-edged.

ETA: Perhaps what I mean isn't relevant though. If you had to restate your earlier point without using the term "methodological naturalism" how would you word it?
My view is that a certain amount of handwaving has occurred which violates our foundations of science. Examples include the law of non-contradiction violation by particle-wave duality and the many-worlds violation of the principle that reality exists independent of observation.

How's that?
 
The irony of Clinger telling BS that "your ignorance of mathematics and science goes far beyond electromagnetism" fair takes the breath away.

However, you do admit that you are ignorant of mathematics, right? You do admit that you can't actually do physics problems in electromagnetism and relativity theory, right?

Given that you are ignorant, it is correct to call your positions, even when correct, something equivalent to religious doctrine.
 
Good catch...You don't miss much! Of course you're totally correct: by itself naturalism is as you say...I'd originally written my reply differently splitting the term, but it seemed too wordy and a bit hard-edged.


My view is that a certain amount of handwaving has occurred which violates our foundations of science. Examples include the law of non-contradiction violation by particle-wave duality and the many-worlds violation of the principle that reality exists independent of observation.

How's that?

“particle-wave duality” is not self-contradictory as “wave” is one aspect, while “particle” another (making 2 aspects in total) and “duality” specifically refers to, well, 2 aspects. “particle-wave duality” is not generally contradictory because it does not contradict any experimental observation(s). What it can contradict are some peoples expectations (usually based on our own experiences) about how the universe should work and there is no “law of non-contradiction” in that regard. Similarly the expectation that there should be only one ‘world’ is something many-worlds can contradict. However, since all of those ‘worlds’ are equally real what it specifically does not contradict is “that reality exists independent of observation” for that very ‘many-worlds’ reason.

Got anything else where you think “a certain amount of handwaving has occurred which violates our foundations of science”?
 
Good catch...You don't miss much! Of course you're totally correct: by itself naturalism is as you say...I'd originally written my reply differently splitting the term, but it seemed too wordy and a bit hard-edged.


My view is that a certain amount of handwaving has occurred which violates our foundations of science. Examples include the law of non-contradiction violation by particle-wave duality and the many-worlds violation of the principle that reality exists independent of observation.

How's that?

OK, got it. If we could focus on particle-wave duality to begin with: You're saying that QM breaks the law of non-contradiction, and so is asserting both P and not-P for some well-defined proposition P. What is P?
 
“particle-wave duality” is not self-contradictory as “wave” is one aspect, while “particle” another (making 2 aspects in total) and “duality” specifically refers to, well, 2 aspects. “particle-wave duality” is not generally contradictory because it does not contradict any experimental observation(s). What it can contradict are some peoples expectations (usually based on our own experiences) about how the universe should work and there is no “law of non-contradiction” in that regard. Similarly the expectation that there should be only one ‘world’ is something many-worlds can contradict. However, since all of those ‘worlds’ are equally real what it specifically does not contradict is “that reality exists independent of observation” for that very ‘many-worlds’ reason.

Got anything else where you think “a certain amount of handwaving has occurred which violates our foundations of science”?
As Quine noted, with sufficient alterations any observation can be accommodated within any framework. If one is willing to make adjustments redefining "a wave" (ontology) to something more like "observations of wave properties" (epistemology) then the classic explanation you relate here is coherent, but still suffers from making progress at the cost of slightly redefining what had previously been standard scientific practice.

This might not be bad. It could herald progress advancing the state of science practice, but clear evidence of this had not been forthcoming since before Kuhn's lamentations 50 years ago on the failure to complete the Einsteinian Revolution.

Some in this forum seem to disagree with the view that physics is failing to deliver the kind of large scale synthesis and consolidation within models providing testable predictions. We formerly used to measure model success this way, but this seems to have changed. Perhaps those in disagreement feel the revolution did complete at some point, or some may think the Kuhnian model is as worthless as others might think the Darwinian model is.

What needs to be provided is a positive justification for another option or opinion.

In business we have deadlines where at some point we say the project is sufficiently behind schedule, over budget, or below performance quality to merit a column with "failing" on a report somewhere. Corrective action is planned or the project killed.

I find the experts' case persuasive that physics is troubled and indicates classic signs toward a better completed Copernican revolution. There are many reasons to disagree: the indicators might not really exist, they might be illusory or outright deceptive. The indicators could be valid but their interpretation could be wrong, or the proper duration for schedule assessment could be 200 years rather than 100, etc.

I'm unaware of any cases being made for any alternate options or ideas, but would love to find out about any.
 
Geddoutofit, lpetrich. It's no religious revelation to point out that the field concerned is the electromagnetic field, or that certain people cling to ignorance and misunderstanding. For example on this website the author says "Magnetic Field Generated by a Single Current-Carrying Rod". It isn't really a field, and it isn't really generated.
How odd, then, that the magnetic field generated by current through that rod is so easily detected by compasses and other simple instruments.

When I took freshman-level electromagnetism, we measured that magnetic field. We also constructed a crude Hall effect magnetometer and used it to measure the magnetic field of the earth. The earth's magnetic field was just barely strong enough to give me a readable measurement, and I was later surprised by its accuracy when I looked up the value obtained using better instruments.

I'm forever pointing this sort of thing out.
Indeed.

I've previously referred to section 11.10 of Jackson's Classical Electrodynamics where he says "one should properly speak of the electromagnetic field Fuv rather than E or B separately".
You continue to act as though you're unaware that Jackson speaks of magnetic fields throughout that book, starting with the very first section:

John David Jackson said:
The electric and magnetic fields E and B in (I.1) were originally introduced by means of the force equation (I.3)....

The concept of E and B as ordinary fields is a classical notion....Ordinarily...the cumulative effect of many photons emitted or absorbed will appear as a continuous, macroscopic observable response. Then a completely classical description in terms of the Maxwell equations is permitted and appropriate.

From section I.2:
John David Jackson said:
Measurements of the earth's magnetic field, both on the surface and out from the surface by satellite observation, permit the best direct limits to be set on ε or equivalently the photon mass mγ.


The electromagnetic field is of course primary, just as spacetime is primary, but the existence of spacetime does not make it silly to speak of time or space separately. The electric and magnetic fields bear exactly the same relationship to the electromagnetic field that time and space bear to spacetime. If you were familiar with relativity and electromagnetism, you'd know that.
 
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I don't regard use of vectors an assumption, I claim a widespread assumption exists today that vector maths can be used without risks which were well known by both sides in the Heaviside-Tait debates, and were argued at length. I would be very interested to know of anyone examining those potential risks after the debates fizzled out.
Please consult the reference I provided on the history of vector calculus.

Today, vector math is as risk-free as any other part of mathematics. If you wish to argue against that statement, please give us a plain statement of the aspect of vector math you're talking about and the risk you perceive.

Luckily, I am qualified to tell you people have been paying attention.

I don't know whether you're seeing risk in failing to enforce a "locality constraint", or from using vectors, or from using quaternions, but it doesn't matter. When Maxwell's laws equations are written in differential form, they're local. When people use quaternions or vectors properly, that mathematics is the least of your worries.
I'd be happy to learn you are right. How do we know mathematics is the least of our worries?
Among all human knowledge, mathematical knowledge is generally acknowledged as the most reliable. There are many reasons for that. Discussion of those reasons would probably involve some discussion of the foundations and philosophy of mathematics, which I'm always happy to discuss.

That might not have anything to do with your aversion to mathematics, however, so you should first answer this question: Why do you regard use of vector math (or mathematics in general) as a risk?

When project managers try to impose their ignorance of the relevant disciplines onto the practitioners of those disciplines, that's poor management practice.
I agree. If you are an expert in this, I'd appreciate help moving math to the bottom of the list of potential sources of risk. Enlighten me.
If you want my help, you'll have to answer my questions.

At the risk of speculating once again, the hints you've dropped in previous messages suggest you were convinced by the EPR argument (although you've been crediting only Einstein, the "E" in EPR), were unaware of Bell's inequalities and the relevant experiments, and haven't taken the trouble to follow up on the references that have been provided you.
In complex projects, we must rely on the knowledge of specialist experts, as you point out. PM's are limited in the time they can spend focusing on technical fields, just as a quantum chromo-dynamicist is limited in spending time learning the PMBOK and still do her job well.

As for EPR/Bell, I think the topic does not seem closed among some experts, and there exists an expectation in this group that new discoveries of quantum mechanics lie ahead in such research.
That topic is certainly certainly not closed, but the EPR position has been rendered increasingly untenable by a truly formidable accumulation of experimental results. Please answer the following questions:

Have your references to realism/reality in physics been influenced by Einstein's view of quantum mechanics, as expressed within the EPR paper?

Do you regard the EPR position as viable today?

If so, how do you reconcile that position with the experimental results?
 
As Quine noted, with sufficient alterations any observation can be accommodated within any framework. If one is willing to make adjustments redefining "a wave" (ontology) to something more like "observations of wave properties" (epistemology) then the classic explanation you relate here is coherent, but still suffers from making progress at the cost of slightly redefining what had previously been standard scientific practice.

No “any observation can” not “be accommodated within any framework” unless “one is willing to make adjustments redefining” “within any framework” “to something more like” any framework that doesn’t preclude such observations, and that is just a tautology.

Again “particle-wave duality” is neither self-contradictory nor generally contradictory and there is likewise no “law of non-contradiction” with regard to what you might consider “had previously been standard scientific practice”.

This might not be bad. It could herald progress advancing the state of science practice, but clear evidence of this had not been forthcoming since before Kuhn's lamentations 50 years ago on the failure to complete the Einsteinian Revolution.

So what? Who gives a flying handshake about “Kuhn's lamentations 50 years ago on the failure to complete the Einsteinian Revolution”? As noted up tread data and technological limits can stall progress even when we know where there is a problem (QFT and GR incompatibility) breakthroughs don’t happen on a time table.

Some in this forum seem to disagree with the view that physics is failing to deliver the kind of large scale synthesis and consolidation within models providing testable predictions. We formerly used to measure model success this way, but this seems to have changed. Perhaps those in disagreement feel the revolution did complete at some point, or some may think the Kuhnian model is as worthless as others might think the Darwinian model is.

Because many here are familiar with that “large scale synthesis and consolidation within models providing testable predictions” if not working directly on it. The standard model and cosmology are more interrelated than any time in our past. It is just that the missing piece (QFT and GR incompatibility) is a very obvious one and gets talked about a lot.

What needs to be provided is a positive justification for another option or opinion.

Making more and/or more accurate predictions is a “positive justification for another option or opinion” but again these things don’t happen on a time table or just because someone thinks that’s “What needs to be provided”.



In business we have deadlines where at some point we say the project is sufficiently behind schedule, over budget, or below performance quality to merit a column with "failing" on a report somewhere. Corrective action is planned or the project killed.

As a Product Designer, Engineer, Project Engineer and Production Engineer I’m quite familiar with deadlines and killed projects. Again sometimes what is needed is just some new data or a technological change. In one project that was shelved for almost 30 years it took the advent of computer controlled spring manufacturing before vendors would even quote the spring design required in sample and production quantities.



I find the experts' case persuasive that physics is troubled and indicates classic signs toward a better completed Copernican revolution. There are many reasons to disagree: the indicators might not really exist, they might be illusory or outright deceptive. The indicators could be valid but their interpretation could be wrong, or the proper duration for schedule assessment could be 200 years rather than 100, etc.

You could be just finding the wrong experts and/or misinterpreting what they say. Given our modern technological society and its dependence on the application of physics “that physics is troubled” does seem either hyperbole or directly misleading.

I'm unaware of any cases being made for any alternate options or ideas, but would love to find out about any.

“alternate” to what? You do have to try to be more specific. You won’t find “alternate options or ideas” unless you know what exactly you want them to be an “alternate” of. Unfortunately alternatives are sometimes limited or nonexistent as not just “any observation can be accommodated within any framework”.

Were that to in fact be the case that “with sufficient alterations any observation can be accommodated within any framework” how does one define a framework as “alternate” and not just the same one “with sufficient alterations”?
 
The electromagnetic field is of course primary, just as spacetime is primary, but the existence of spacetime does not make it silly to speak of time or space separately. The electric and magnetic fields bear exactly the same relationship to the electromagnetic field that time and space bear to spacetime. If you were familiar with relativity and electromagnetism, you'd know that.

Farsight's erroneous notions are the result of his apparently prolific but naïve reading about physics. To his credit, he demonstrates a genuine passion for the subject. But that is where the credit ends.
Unfortunately, all his reading and internet plodding cannot compensate for his lack of studying the real thing including the mathematics which is the only way the essence modern physics can be described and understood.
This naively intuitive reading of physics papers and books is the approach we see from so many of the crackpots that come and go from this forum. I have often wondered if these people would take the time to master the math required, might they see the light?
 
As Quine noted, with sufficient alterations any observation can be accommodated within any framework. If one is willing to make adjustments redefining "a wave" (ontology) to something more like "observations of wave properties" (epistemology) then the classic explanation you relate here is coherent, but still suffers from making progress at the cost of slightly redefining what had previously been standard scientific practice.

Just to add as I feel this part requires more specificity.

Waves were considered to be "observations of” the properties of particles or bulk materials. Particles moved or oscillated in waves. So waves were thought to travel trough mediums of such particles. So much so that the luminiferous aether was proposed as the medium through which electromagnetic waves traveled. Experimental observations were not compatible with that framework and at the same time it was found that light had definable particle like properties (mass, momentum as well as emission and absorption as a whole). With the concept of the wave packet these particle like “”observations of wave properties" (epistemology)” of “"a wave" (ontology)” were entirely consistent. So what happen wasn’t an “adjustments redefining "a wave" (ontology) to something more like "observations of wave properties" (epistemology)” it was a better understanding “of wave properties” that can be highly localized like a classical particle.
 
My view is that a certain amount of handwaving has occurred which violates our foundations of science. Examples include the law of non-contradiction violation by particle-wave duality and the many-worlds violation of the principle that reality exists independent of observation.

How's that?
Not very good, BurntSynapse :eek:!
I do not know who this "our" you are talking about but they seem ignorant about the foundations of science.
Particle-wave duality is an observation. Electrons for example behave as both waves and particles. There is no contradiction. For that matter this "law of non-contradiction" seems imaginary as far as science is involved (there is one in logic).
The many-worlds interpretation of QM does not violate the principle that reality exists independent of observation in naturalism.
 
My view is that a certain amount of handwaving has occurred which violates our foundations of science. Examples include the law of non-contradiction violation by particle-wave duality and the many-worlds violation of the principle that reality exists independent of observation.

How's that?

What exactly is this law of non-contradiction and how exactly does wave particle duality violate it? Mass is waves all the time, the particle nature comes about from the constraints of the indeterminacy in interactions.


I don't think you actually checked the definition of realism in QM, the indeterminacy does not mean that particles do not exist outside of observation, it means that they are 'smeared' to an extent determined by the nature of the interaction. (Higher energies tending to decrease the 'smearing'.)

1. What exactly is an 'observation' in QM, BS?

Please answer that simple direct question.

2. Then explain what 'an interpretation of QM' means.

So there you go, two simple direct questions to answer.
 
Farsight said:
And looking at your next post, I've repeatedly said that field is the derivative of potential, often referring to the Aharonov-Bohm effect:

"...Richard Feynman complained[citation needed] that he had been taught electromagnetism from the perspective of electromagnetic fields, and he wished later in life he had been taught to think in terms of the electromagnetic potential..."

"...The Aharonov–Bohm effect shows that the local E and B fields do not contain full information about the electromagnetic field, and the electromagnetic four-potential, (Φ,A), must be used instead..."
So what? That's a quantum-mechanical effect.
Check your facts, lpetrich. What we know as the Aharonov-Bohm effect was predicted by Ehrenberg and Siday in their 1949 paper The Refractive Index in Electron Optics and the Principles of Dynamics. It's a classical electromagnetism paper.

Some nonconstant potentials produce zero fields, but these potentials can still make their mark on particle wavefunctions. Observable effects are still gauge-invariant, however. The effects on wavefunctions can be observed as interference, and that's something that averages out in the classical limit.
Like I said, it's a classical electromagnetism paper. And it's one field, the electromagnetic field, and one potential, known as four-potential. Pay attention next time I explain electromagnetism, because it's crystal clear that you don't understand it either.
 
If you're bothered by what lpretrich said, why don't you simply explain whether or not you do "make similar arguments about Maxwell's equations, that Oliver Heaviside's vector version is somehow a perversion of Maxwell's revealed truth"?
I've never said "perversion of Maxwell's revealed truth". The problem with the Heaviside's vector version is that it leads to people like Clinger believing in a cargo-cult version of electromagnetism wherein the forces that result from electromagnetic field interactions are themselves fields. They aren't. Maxwell unified the electric and magnetic fields into the electromagnetic field. But when you read Clinger talking about electromagnetism, and it's as if Maxwell had never been born.

And while you're at it, if you do, why.
I don't. In fact, when you pay attention to the distinction between field and force and to Heaviside's gravitomagnetism, you understand why he was able to work it out from electromagnetism. Go and look at some pictures of vector fields. It's because the electromagnetic field in itself features a form of frame dragging, only chiral in three dimensions. See the Minkowski quote from Space and Time and the Maxwell quote from On Physical Lines of Force:

"Then in the description of the field produced by the electron we see that the separation of the field into electric and magnetic force is a relative one with regard to the underlying time axis; the most perspicious way of describing the two forces together is on a certain analogy with the wrench in mechanics, though the analogy is not complete".

"A motion of translation along an axis cannot produce a rotation about that axis unless it meets with some special mechanism, like that of a screw".

That "screw" isn't there for nothing, and Maxwell didn't put "vortices" in his page title for nothing, and spinors aren't called spinors for nothing. Start with two electrons placed down near to one another with no relative motion. Each has an electromagnetic field. Their field interactions result in linear "electric" force. People refer to this as an electric field and draw radial "field lines", but the only fields present are electromagnetic fields, interacting. Start again with two electrons placed down near to one another with relative motion. Their field interactions now also result in rotational "magnetic" force. People refer to this as a magnetic field, they draw concentric "field lines", and say it's generated when it isn't. Again the only fields present are electromagnetic fields. You could say that magnetic force is revealed by the relative motion, that's OK. But you don't "create" a magnetic field when you move an electron.

In the current-in-the-wire, you essentially start with a column of negative electrons and a column of positive metal ions. When the electrons aren't moving the two sets of electromagnetic fields cancel, and a test electron outside the wire is not subject to linear or rotational forces. When you make the electrons in the wire move up vertically, your test electron is still not subject to linear force, because the linear forces cancel. However when it has relative motion past the wire its path is somewhat helical. People ascribe this to the "magnetic field", but there is no such field in any fundamental sense. All that's really happening is that the rotational forces that results from electromagnetic field interactions no longer cancel.
 
However, you do admit that you are ignorant of mathematics, right? You do admit that you can't actually do physics problems in electromagnetism and relativity theory, right?
No.

Given that you are ignorant, it is correct to call your positions, even when correct, something equivalent to religious doctrine.
See the post above. I'm not ignorant. Now am I?
 
Check your facts, lpetrich. What we know as the Aharonov-Bohm effect was predicted by Ehrenberg and Siday in their 1949 paper The Refractive Index in Electron Optics and the Principles of Dynamics. It's a classical electromagnetism paper.

Like I said, it's a classical electromagnetism paper. And it's one field, the electromagnetic field, and one potential, known as four-potential. Pay attention next time I explain electromagnetism, because it's crystal clear that you don't understand it either.

I've got the paper in front of me, and it is not a "classical" (pre-quantum) electromagnetism paper.

Here's an extract, with my highlights:
...
As the arbitrariness of the vector potential does not enter Lorentz' equation it cannot produce any observable effects in geometrical [electron] optics. This can, of course, also be shown by a consideration of Fermat’s principle with the value for μ given. But equation (34) shows that the inclination ξ of the wave surfaces to the rays depends on the absolute value A of the vector potential and on its inclination θ to the rays.
...
The form of (34) shows that in general the change of A is not compensated by the change of θ, so that in general the addition of a term grad ψ to A0 results in a change of ξ, and thus, as the rays remain unaltered, in a change of the wave surfaces.

Remember, in "classical" (pre-quantum) electrodynamics the motion of an electron would be governed purely by the Lorentz force law, i.e. by the E and B fields (F = qE + qv×B) , so there would be no way to get the Ehrenberg-Siday-Aharonov-Bohm effect.
 
See the post above. I'm not ignorant. Now am I?
Yes, you seem to take a comment by Maxwell out of context and spin it into a religious revelation. A look at the text does not support your claims about the role of "screw" in electrodynamics.

And it is not pleasant to see that you are now trying to deceive people about your ability to do mathematical physics. You have previously admitted that you could not do the mathematics of GR. You have never been able to demonstrate the ability to do a single physics exercise. You have consistently made basic mathematical mistakes. This indicates that you don't understand the physics.
 
Farsight's erroneous notions are the result of his apparently prolific but naïve reading about physics. To his credit, he demonstrates a genuine passion for the subject. But that is where the credit ends.
Unfortunately, all his reading and internet plodding cannot compensate for his lack of studying the real thing including the mathematics which is the only way the essence modern physics can be described and understood.
This naively intuitive reading of physics papers and books is the approach we see from so many of the crackpots that come and go from this forum. I have often wondered if these people would take the time to master the math required, might they see the light?
Probably not. Simple ignorance, by itself, does not explain stubborn advocacy of crackpot physics. A crackpot's stubborn conviction that he understands the science better than those who have devoted their lives to advancing that science allows the crackpot to reject genuine physics even after errors in their crackpot physics have been identified and explained to them.

I also doubt whether you can credit Farsight (for example) with having done much reading. Although Farsight has been quoting John David Jackson's Classical Electrodynamics "forever", that textbook is full of mathematics, and it's highly unlikely that Farsight has been able to read it. I doubt whether he even owns a copy. I suspect he found the prooftext he's been citing "forever" by Googling:

Geddoutofit, lpetrich. It's no religious revelation to point out that the field concerned is the electromagnetic field, or that certain people cling to ignorance and misunderstanding. For example on this website the author says "Magnetic Field Generated by a Single Current-Carrying Rod". It isn't really a field, and it isn't really generated. I'm forever pointing this sort of thing out. I've previously referred to section 11.10 of Jackson's Classical Electrodynamics where he says "one should properly speak of the electromagnetic field Fuv rather than E or B separately".
If Farsight had actually read Jackson's book, he'd have noticed that section I.1, at the very beginning of the book, begins with these equations:

John David Jackson said:
The equations governing electromagnetic phenomena are the Maxwell equations,

∇∙D = ρ
∇×H - ∂D/∂t = J
∇×E + ∂B/∂t = 0
∇∙B = 0

where for external sources in vacuum, D = ε0E and B = μ0H.
That is, of course, the standard undergraduate-level vector version of Maxwell's equations in differential form.

Despite Farsight's frequent citation of Jackson as an authority, Farsight condemns Jackson's vector formulation of Maxwell's equations:

The problem with the Heaviside's vector version is that it leads to people like Clinger believing in a cargo-cult version of electromagnetism wherein the forces that result from electromagnetic field interactions are themselves fields. They aren't. Maxwell unified the electric and magnetic fields into the electromagnetic field. But when you read Clinger talking about electromagnetism, and it's as if Maxwell had never been born.
Farsight was unaware that Jackson refers to B and H as magnetic fields. Those symbols occur throughout Jackson's book, and every occurrence of those symbols refers to a magnetic field. Farsight remains unaware of this even though I pointed it out just two days ago.

So Farsight's been quoting Jackson without reading Jackson, and he's been ignoring Jackson's words even when I highlighted those words for him.

If those who advocate crackpot physics were sincerely interested in learning physics, they'd pay more attention when their mistakes are explained to them.

I don't. In fact, when you pay attention to the distinction between field and force and to Heaviside's gravitomagnetism, you understand why he was able to work it out from electromagnetism. Go and look at some pictures of vector fields.
Crackpots like pictures, partly because they can look at pictures without understanding the relevant math, and partly because they can pretend pictures support their crackpot physics. Some of the vector fields found by that Google Images search are pictures of magnetic fields, whose existence Farsight is denying.

Why would someone direct our attention to pictures of the vector fields he denies? Because Farsight himself doesn't know what magnetic fields look like, and has only the foggiest understanding of basic vector math.

When Farsight sees pictures of magnetic fields that have been generated directly from solutions of Maxwell's equations, as at the web page Farsight cited, he doesn't recognize them as magnetic fields. He doesn't even recognize them as vector fields.

See the post above. I'm not ignorant. Now am I?
Those who advocate crackpot physics often cite their own error-infested posts as evidence of their understanding.
 
A while back, I de-lurked and observed that, instead of using the scientific method, most crackpots that visit JREF use a bogus method that could be called hermenueutical scholasticism. This consists of deduction based on textual interpretation of Great Works rather than induction based on observation of nature.

There could not be a more perfect example than the following:

...See the Minkowski quote from Space and Time...:

"Then in the description of the field produced by the electron we see that the separation of the field into electric and magnetic force is a relative one with regard to the underlying time axis; the most perspicious way of describing the two forces together is on a certain analogy with the wrench in mechanics, though the analogy is not complete"..

This is Farsight's "I'm with Minkowski" dance, and he has used this passage, taken in splendid isolation from the rest of Space and Time, as a sword and a shield for years - attacking his JREF interlocutors for "ignoring Minkwoski" and defending his own deductions as supported by Minkowski.

But what about the rest of Space and Time? If Minkwoski's work supports Farsight's deductions, surely this passage, in context with the rest of the work, also supports Farsight's deductions? It's not just this single sentence that can be twisted, on it's own, into something it was never intended to express, right? Minkowski's work really does support Farsight's deductions, right?

Well...no. See, there is a problem with Space and Time:
Farsight said:
The rest of Space and Time suffers from Minkowski's lack of understanding of time. He didn't know that time is an emergent property of motion, so he employs time instead of relative motion, and fails to depict the three-dimensional electromagnetic field.

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=5791805&postcount=451
So, apart from that single, mis-interpreted sentence, this particular Great Work does not support Farsight because it does not employ Farsight's deductions about time.

This is a single example, but it applies to all of Farsight's deductions. Every time he cites a Great Work, he is doing the same thing. Not just crackpottery, but deceptive and willfully dishonest crackpottery.
 
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I've got the paper in front of me, and it is not a "classical" (pre-quantum) electromagnetism paper.

Here's an extract, with my highlights:

As the arbitrariness of the vector potential does not enter Lorentz' equation it cannot produce any observable effects in geometrical [electron] optics. This can, of course, also be shown by a consideration of Fermat’s principle with the value for μ given. But equation (34) shows that the inclination ξ of the wave surfaces to the rays depends on the absolute value A of the vector potential and on its inclination θ to the rays.
...
The form of (34) shows that in general the change of A is not compensated by the change of θ, so that in general the addition of a term grad ψ to A0 results in a change of ξ, and thus, as the rays remain unaltered, in a change of the wave surfaces.


Remember, in "classical" (pre-quantum) electrodynamics the motion of an electron would be governed purely by the Lorentz force law, i.e. by the E and B fields (F = qE + qv×B) , so there would be no way to get the Ehrenberg-Siday-Aharonov-Bohm effect.
You need to read the introduction, ct:

Ehrenberg and Siday said:
WHEREAS in light optics the refractive index of a medium is in the first instance an experimental datum, and its accurate value is the basis of any detailed discussion of the performance of optical instruments, all geometrical electron optics is entirely contained in Lorentz’s equation for the forces acting on a moving charge. As a result, all equations for trajectories can be derived directly from that equation by specifying the electric and magnetic fields. Thus the role of the refractive index in electron optics is far less obvious than that of its counterpart for light, and in fact different authors have proposed essentially different values of the refractive index for the same field without arousing much perturbation (Glaser 1933, 1937, Opatowski 1943). Only through the persistent use of the refractive index, however, is the optical character of electron optics fully brought out, the flow of reasoning maintained and in fact greatly simplified, and the way opened for a wave optical treatment of electronic problems, such as the resolving power of the electron microscope....
It's electrons, it's optics, it's classical electromagnetism. It isn't quantum mechanics. And lpetrich has learned something new today.
 

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