I am of the opinion that, while there likely was an historical person, or several, named
ישוע (rendered in Greek as
Ἰησοῦς in the NT) the miracle-working son o'god"messiah" (so different from the One prophesied in the OT) is a redaction. There are several threads on the subject here on JREF--you might check them out. Does my opinion constitute "bias"? Gee--I dunno--everyone who could judge how biased I am is working in TV, where the real money is.
"ben Ioseph" is a modern fabrication -- there is no contemporary record of Jesus ever having used that name.
Actually, "ben Ioseph" ( as "son-of Joseph") was in use at least as early as 200 BCE; see
משיח בן יוסף. There is no "contemporary record" of
Ἰησοῦς using
any name.
As for "Jeshua", the lingua franca of 1st century Palestine was Greek, not Hebrew nor Aramaic.
Perhaps you would be so good as to provide sources for this interestingly non-traditional claim.
It is possible that Jesus' mother tongue was Aramaic, but it is also possible that it was Greek ; it's also possible that Jesus was given a Hebrew name.
See above,
Ἰησοῦς/
ישוע in the NT. Perhaps you do not realize that neither Aramaic nor Greek employed a "J"...
As for "if he even existed", his historical existence is attested by the largest number and the oldest copies of texts than any other individual of the early 1st century.
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?t=222141, or any other thread started by DOC...
That horse has been beat to death. While I am prepared to accept that there was likely at least one person who could arguably be referred to as "the historical
Ἰησοῦς/
ישוע", I find no reason to believe he, or any of them, was/were the 'son' of a 'god' in which I do not believe.
Why is what you believe support for your position, but what I do not believe is "bias"?
If you practice that superstition, so be it--but do not expect me to grant your belief the status of evidence.