I don't see how you can come to that conclusion based upon that quoted bit. Your argument is rejected.
Reject what you will. The poll taxes were instituted to keep poor people (who were mostly black) from voting. The "insurance" also serves to keep poor people (many of whom are black) from possessing a firearm. An elderly person on a fixed income may be able to acquire a firearm ( gift, inheritance, or just a cheap one time purchase) but a yearly premium would constitute a burden they may not be able to bear. And that, irrespective of how much the premium actually is, makes it a stricture against their right to keep and bear arms, in exactly the same manner as a poll tax kept people from voting.
I have seen no reason for instituting such legislation than stands the test described regarding a compelling interest.
There was no conclusion and no emotion there, just a simple question. You care to answer it?
Really? You asked out of pure intellectual curiosity, with no intent to irritate or upset the person to whom you posed the question?
I have no problem answering the questions.
No.
I've carried a firearm for over 40 years. In that time I've injured no one accidentally, and (outside of Vietnam) I've only had to shoot one person, who was attempting to kill me. He survived the encounter and admitted it to the police, stating that while he only planned on burglarizing my home, when he realized someone was there he felt he couldn't leave any witnesses to identify him.
No.
There are estimated to be some 100 million firearm owners in the US and only a tiny fraction of them ever use a gun in a negligent or illegal manner.
And what is the remedy for accidental misdeed This is what the insurance is for. Why am I having to explain it for you for the umpteenth time?
For accidental misdeeds we have the civil courts. They seem to work well enough.
or a misdeed carried out with your gun by another?
You need to be more precise in your questions.
If you mean
with your consent, or if you entrust someone with a firearm knowing or having reason to know they intend to use it for an unlawful purpose, then there are criminal statutes already on the books that cover this in detail. The same applies to automobiles, tools,etc.
Why should you be penalized for the misdeeds of another providing you had nothing to do with the misdeed itself? Do you feel that any item you own, if appropriated without your consent or knowledge and misused by another, should be grounds for civil litigation or criminal prosecution?
If your neighbor borrows a screwdriver and stabs someone to death with it, are
you liable as the owner of the tool?
This is exactly the case you are attempting to make in regards to firearms.
Some of your arguments, though, are complete rubbish.
But not the one I'm making here.
Most of the rubbish
I see in this debate is coming from the Anti-gun faction.