PixyMisa
Persnickety Insect
The relevant statistics are as follows:
Prior probability: Zero.
Evidence: Zero.
Prior probability: Zero.
Evidence: Zero.
The relevant statistics are as follows:
Prior probability: Zero.
Evidence: Zero.
Yet this thread (and the other 2) will march on oblivous to this obvious fact.
One area of paranormal investigation that seems fairly persuasive is the phenomenon of apparitions of the dead.
Denialism denies the evidence.3. How does a priori scepticism (as opposed to methodological scepticism) differ from denialism?
I can't remember which thread I'm supposed to be responding to Andy on now, but putting on my "philosophy of science" hat I have to ask why you and Pixy claim this? Three questions --
1. What is impossible?
2. How do you know it is impossible?
3. How does a priori scepticism (as opposed to methodological scepticism) differ from denialism?
We can start a new thread if it's going to be a substantial derail? It seems important though to address these issues lest we end up just with a "it's all XXXXXXX - because i say it is XXXXXXX" argument, which does seem to permeate the thread. I'm genuinely interested in the above questions.
cj x
Denialism denies the evidence.
What's happening here is there has been no evidence presented.
You should start a thread on philisophy of science then.
As for skepticism, I'll just say it involves not believing something without good evidence. I don't believe in apparitions because they lack good evidence.
I think there has been evidence presented. It is hard to see what else to call the vast collections of case studies that have been carefully analysed over the years. Given that the claim A) "People see things they call ghosts" is unproblematic, I can't see how analysing said experiences fails to be evidential except upon a priori grounds? For example, until Hufford's classic study (1981) Sleep Paralysis was largely ignored as anecdotal: only after his systematic analysis did the phenomena become understood as widespread and the subject of large amounts of investigation: ditto the pioneer SPR group identifiying hypnagogic/hypnopompic states along with French psychical researchers?
cj x
I can't remember which thread I'm supposed to be responding to Andy on now, but putting on my "philosophy of science" hat I have to ask why you and Pixy claim this? Three questions --
1. What is impossible?
2. How do you know it is impossible?
3. How does a priori scepticism (as opposed to methodological scepticism) differ from denialism?
We can start a new thread if it's going to be a substantial derail? It seems important though to address these issues lest we end up just with a "it's all XXXXXXX - because i say it is XXXXXXX" argument, which does seem to permeate the thread. I'm genuinely interested in the above questions.
You know, I was doing some reading, and I think I figured out how to make a case for apparitions using "objective evidence".
The relevant statistics are as follows:
Prior probability: Zero.
Evidence: Zero.
Despite your apparent desire to mis-characterize the skeptics' position here, nobody is saying, "It's all XXXXXXX - because I say it is XXXXXXX". Maybe you haven't been paying attention, but Andyman409 has been attempting to "make a case for apparitions using 'objective evidence'"...
Other than a few insubstantial denials, he's made it pretty obvious that he believes poltergeists exist, or at the very least that there are paranormal causes for the alleged effects.
Explaining away the unknown by attributing the cause to another unknown is about as unscientific as one can get.4. The SPR group in 1894 developed a theory that as almost all ghosts were hallucinations, the Veridical Cases were perhaps caused by telepathic information transfer from living agent to living agent, the resulting hallucination of the apparition being a way of the brain tricking the percipient in to receiving the information. Variants of this theory have dominated the parapsychological discourse since 1894, with notable papers written on the subject including those of GW Tyrell and Hornell Hart. I believe it is not supported well by the dataset.
Explaining away the unknown by attributing the cause to another unknown is about as unscientific as one can get.
At the time?Well at the time telepathy was considered scientific...
And this was then a misrepresentation?Variants of this theory have dominated the parapsychological discourse since 1894, with notable papers written on the subject including those of GW Tyrell and Hornell Hart
The null hypothesis that conventional physics can explain these phenomena could be regarded as a priori grounds. What we lack is evidence that the null hypothesis is false.I think there has been evidence presented. It is hard to see what else to call the vast collections of case studies that have been carefully analysed over the years. Given that the claim A) "People see things they call ghosts" is unproblematic, I can't see how analysing said experiences fails to be evidential except upon a priori grounds?
But even before these causes were understood, there was every reason to think that there would be a conventional physical cause to the observed phenomena.For example, until Hufford's classic study (1981) Sleep Paralysis was largely ignored as anecdotal: only after his systematic analysis did the phenomena become understood as widespread and the subject of large amounts of investigation: ditto the pioneer SPR group identifiying hypnagogic/hypnopompic states along with French psychical researchers?
I'm accepting of natural phenomenon that cause people to believe they've seen ghosts.I won't second guess you, but surely you accept people have experiences of apparitions? I suspect, but do not know, that it is the underlying causes of such experiences where your scepticism cuts in? ie. you are sceptical they are "dead guys" or similar?
cj x
Many things. Pick one.I can't remember which thread I'm supposed to be responding to Andy on now, but putting on my "philosophy of science" hat I have to ask why you and Pixy claim this? Three questions --
1. What is impossible?
Science.2. How do you know it is impossible?
Completely.3. How does a priori scepticism (as opposed to methodological scepticism) differ from denialism?
Not quite. Let me explain:By "prior probability: zero" it seems he means, of all the phenomena that were ever considered to be caused by ghosts or poltergeists, how often has objective analysis determined that something paranormal or supernatural actually was the cause? By "evidence: zero" it appears he means, how much objective evidence is there to support the claim that ghosts or poltergeists exist?
Sorry if I sounded like a believer. I throught my hesitance would signal that I'm not.
Not very many posts are given the tag "collective apparition". I checked the search bar for them, but found only a few threads, many being unrelated (ex: "are paranormal believers dense?". I'll have to check again.
I think its important to note that I'm only interested in collective cases. I'm more than aware of works such as Elizebeth Loftus' on memory, so I seriously doubt we could know, for example, whether an apparition had information previously unknown to the recepient. Collective apparitions, however, seem harder to refute. We'd need to know the circumstances to the experiences, what each participant thought they saw, etc. Maybe they are all instances of illusions? I cant really judge the explaination "they were lies" unless I actually look at the data.
A google search gave me a few parapsychological papers, but none described what the critereon for a collective apparition exactly was, so I learned nothing from it. There are books on the topic, but many are, well, popular writings. McGreerys "apparitions" is the only one I have heard of that seems, well, kinda scientific- but alas, I have had great difficulty finding it.