Im sorry to be reticent, been much tied up doing emergency teaching since a colleague unfortunately broke her leg (on the origin of life). It's easy though: "about 6000 years ago..."
I will dig up some literature on folk healing etc when I get time (one can also poke around a bit in Josephus etc).
However, I do think there is a problem with perception here.
Obviously many people today think that supernatural miracles are straightforwardly impossible. But in the ancient world, although there were protests (eg Cicero), most peole seemed to accept that the miraculous was possible (why not?). Even Josephus, who is normally quite severe against this sort of thing, speaks favourably of Honi (putting aside the TF for a moment!).
They also thought that although the ability to produce miracles was a mark of favour of God, it did not make the miracle worker into a divine or supernatural being. Furthermore, someone in the first century would not at all divide the miraculous and non-miraculous in the same way as we would, simply because spiritual involvement in all aspects of life was taken for granted - such as in birth, for example.
To take two examples, we might think that a psychosomatic healing is possible with words (that is, after all, what a psychotherapist achieves), whereas gluing someone's ear on is not.
But would we think that someone in the first century would draw that distinction, if two such reports were brought to their attention? And if not, why is it that Mark's miracles are largely restrained to examples that could be considered to be of the former sort? (one answer: these were real events!).
As for fraud: if both a healer and his patients thought that all such healing was possible, and a sign of divine favour, in which sense would this be charlatanry? At most, surely one might say that they were mistaken. And once more, I would argue that within certain limits, such healings
would be possible.
On healing, exorcisms and the messiah: it's problematic that stories of exorcists in the time period are rare to nonexistent, and there are no obvious links in the tradiiton between the messiah and either healing or exorcism. So why, if Mark's gospel was written to sell the idea of his Jesus figure being the messiah, is so much of it taken up with such stories for which there was no OT or other warrant? Indeed, such figures were often viewed with suspicion as dabbling in magic. Furthermore, the healings and miracles dont play a decisive role in convincing either the disciples or the population at large that Jesus was the Messiah.
Of course, everything in the gospels is written from a post-resurrection perspective, it was this view, that Jesus had risen from the dead, that casts a strong light over the rest of the gospels. Thus, especially Matthew then ransacked the OT for texts never previously thought of as being messianic in their scope to justify the life of Jesus.
All this is extremely odd if the evangelists weren't working under severe restraint. Otherwise, why not just up a much more OT friendly figure? Why have healings and exorcisms? Etc.
On Jesus the Mundane. The church fought for a long time to preserve the view, eventually enshrined in Chalcedonian orthodoxy, that Jesus was a true and real man. And this means that if he was more than human, he would not be fully human. Of course, the church also came to declare Jesus to be fully divine as well, but the key thing that this was without confusion with the human.
Hope that holding post keeps the wolves from the doors for a bit...