What a strange question? What are you testing for here? How I pronounce lake or Baikal? (which would be irrelevant)
L'see,......... Lake as in lake and I suppose Baikal would sound like "bikel".
Now, what have I proved or disproved?
You've proved that it's acceptable to translate the word for "lake" into the language in which you're speaking at the time you refer to the body of water in question. Except that, for some reason, it's not allowed to translate from Gaelic into English.
And this isn't entirely a frivolous point. I can understand why Scotland, a separate nation to England in many respects but not in others, would want to preserve its own language, customs and nomenclatures; it prevents people from automatically seeing Scotland as a subset of England, which it is not. However, if the English are required exclusively to use Gaelic words to describe Scottish geography
when speaking English, then words like "loch" become seen as themselves a subset of the English language, reinforcing the erroneous view that Scotland itself is a subset of England.
I have no issue with referring to Loch Ness as, well, Loch Ness; that's its proper name. But I think it's counterproductive to the preservation of Scottish language and culture as distinct from English language and culture to forbid it to be described, when discussing its nature rather than stating its proper name, by the English word "lake", to whose definition it quite clearly conforms.
Would it be equally insulting to describe Loch Fyne as an inlet? If so, how would one draw the distinction between Loch Ness and Loch Fyne while using the English language? And if not, consider why not.
Dave