I don't wish to "beam down" into the current discussion (which has become quite imaginative at times), but I am hoping for a clarification of a point that has left me confused for weeks:
Why, under Florida law, couldn't Trayvon Martin claim "Stand your ground" himself, thus justifying lethal force against GZ? If TM was being following by a stranger (to him) with a gun, and he reasonably felt in danger of his life, would he not under "Stand your ground" have a right to attack, and even kill GZ, by whatever means necessary? Why do these discussions so often focus on only GZ's right to invoke this principle- is there some point in the law that creates this asymmetry?