HansMustermann
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Mar 2, 2009
- Messages
- 23,741
Ok, here's the problem I'm having, and I'll start by clarifying the propositions, as best as I understand them. Feel free to correct me.
P1: A lot of suffering and injustice in the world is supposedly explained by God somehow needing to give people complete free will. I suppose so he can see whether the Nazis would choose to gas a few million Jews, he needs to give them enough free will that they can do that.
And God pretty much can't do much about it, or he'd be limiting your free will. Basically that if your daughter is in the car with the next Ted Bundy, God can't stop him or make him suddenly not want to kill her after all, because that would infringe on Ted Bundy's free will.
(At this point I'll skip over the patent contradiction with all the claims that some prayer worked, or God helped some anyway, which boil down to infringing on someone's free will anyway. E.g., anyone who believes that praying to Jesus before a job interview helped them get a job, effectively believes that Jesus messed with the employer's free will. Or equivalently, messed with the data that they used to make a decision, although giving you data that would change your choice is also apparently something God can't do. E.g., it's why God doesn't show himself.)
At any rate, remember this premise: God has to give you full free will, and if you couldn't sin, and even commit the most horrible crimes, then you wouldn't have free will.
P2: As I quoted in my "So how do you know you're saved?" thread, he first Epistle of John -- which, by the way, is the same John who wrote the Gospel of John, so it seems to me like anyone who grants him divine inspiration for the gospel should kinda take him seriously -- states in chapter 3, verses 8 to 10:
Again, "born of God" meaning the same as what was translated as "born again" in the same guy's gospel.
But at any rate, it says that if you were properly "saved" once, if that being "born again" actually worked, then that's it. For the rest of your days, you can't sin any more. If you CAN, then you're still one of Satan's guys.
And it's been confirmed to me in the aforementioned thread that a bunch of churches DO read it that way: if you were properly saved, then you can't sin any more.
Okaaayy....
So the question is: how the heck does one reconcile P1 and P2?
Do thousands and in fact millions of Christians get their free will removed, and that's not a problem for God?
Or -- as is usually explained, and not just for living people, but also for why people don't start beating the crap out of each other in Heaven -- no, dude, you still have full free will, he just makes you not want to sin any more? Well, that seems to me like it's just making P1 a load of stupid nonsense. Because it just says that someone can still have (enough) free will, even if they're prevented from doing evil stuff, or even from wanting to do evil stuff. So then why doesn't God do it for everyone in the first place?
If Joe Random Fundie can still count as having free will even though God is preventing him from not just doing evil stuff, but even thinking bad thoughts (those are sins too, remember?), or wanting to do evil stuff, etc... then why couldn't Cain still count as having free will even if God were to stop him from killing Abel? Why wouldn't Ted Bundy count as still having free will, even if God were to prevent him from torturing and murdering those dozens of young women?
P1: A lot of suffering and injustice in the world is supposedly explained by God somehow needing to give people complete free will. I suppose so he can see whether the Nazis would choose to gas a few million Jews, he needs to give them enough free will that they can do that.
And God pretty much can't do much about it, or he'd be limiting your free will. Basically that if your daughter is in the car with the next Ted Bundy, God can't stop him or make him suddenly not want to kill her after all, because that would infringe on Ted Bundy's free will.
(At this point I'll skip over the patent contradiction with all the claims that some prayer worked, or God helped some anyway, which boil down to infringing on someone's free will anyway. E.g., anyone who believes that praying to Jesus before a job interview helped them get a job, effectively believes that Jesus messed with the employer's free will. Or equivalently, messed with the data that they used to make a decision, although giving you data that would change your choice is also apparently something God can't do. E.g., it's why God doesn't show himself.)
At any rate, remember this premise: God has to give you full free will, and if you couldn't sin, and even commit the most horrible crimes, then you wouldn't have free will.
P2: As I quoted in my "So how do you know you're saved?" thread, he first Epistle of John -- which, by the way, is the same John who wrote the Gospel of John, so it seems to me like anyone who grants him divine inspiration for the gospel should kinda take him seriously -- states in chapter 3, verses 8 to 10:
8. He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work.
9. No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God.
10. This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother.
9. No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God.
10. This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother.
Again, "born of God" meaning the same as what was translated as "born again" in the same guy's gospel.
But at any rate, it says that if you were properly "saved" once, if that being "born again" actually worked, then that's it. For the rest of your days, you can't sin any more. If you CAN, then you're still one of Satan's guys.
And it's been confirmed to me in the aforementioned thread that a bunch of churches DO read it that way: if you were properly saved, then you can't sin any more.
Okaaayy....
So the question is: how the heck does one reconcile P1 and P2?
Do thousands and in fact millions of Christians get their free will removed, and that's not a problem for God?
Or -- as is usually explained, and not just for living people, but also for why people don't start beating the crap out of each other in Heaven -- no, dude, you still have full free will, he just makes you not want to sin any more? Well, that seems to me like it's just making P1 a load of stupid nonsense. Because it just says that someone can still have (enough) free will, even if they're prevented from doing evil stuff, or even from wanting to do evil stuff. So then why doesn't God do it for everyone in the first place?
If Joe Random Fundie can still count as having free will even though God is preventing him from not just doing evil stuff, but even thinking bad thoughts (those are sins too, remember?), or wanting to do evil stuff, etc... then why couldn't Cain still count as having free will even if God were to stop him from killing Abel? Why wouldn't Ted Bundy count as still having free will, even if God were to prevent him from torturing and murdering those dozens of young women?

