How could I ever do that when (besides my other posts) there is Isaiah chapter 53, and also the verse in Ezekiel 26 that accurately prophecizes Tyre will become a place over which fisherman will place their nets.
I also see in another alleged false prophecy, the person who alleged the false prophecy again left out a very important verse in their claim. Also there is evidence that their historical claim is false. I wish I had more time but I should get to this by next Wednesday at the latest.
Regarding Isaiah 53, the song of the suffering servant; remember that the gospels being written centuries after this was written could refer back to it. Therefore, it is impossible to prove whether or not Jesus being silent before his accusers (as in Matthew 27) was in fulfillment of Isaiah 53 or if the gospel was written that way to make it "fulfill" the prophecy. However, if we compare the silence of Jesus before Pilate in Matthew 27 with John 18 and 19, we find that Jesus is anything but silent before both the high priest and Pilate. So, if the silence of Jesus in Matthew fulfills Isaiah 53, does that mean the Gospel of John got it wrong and is, thus, not divinely inspired?
As to Ezekiel 26, I have repeatedly pointed out to you that the prophecy specifies that the king who will breach the city's defenses, destroy the city and kill its people is Nebuchadrezzar. As to Tyre will becoming a bare rock over which fisherman will place their nets, eventually every city will fall, lose its power, some ceasing to exist, others being transformed in nature. Also, what was once the core area of a city may become a backwater, while newer areas become vibrant, hence the shift over
millennia in Tyre's center.
Again, the wrath of God against Tyre was over its people rejoicing over the fall of Jerusalem, according to Ezekiel. "Many nations" coming against Tyre as fulfillment of Ezekiel's prophecy against it doesn't make any sense if fulfilled by Alexander the Great taking the city. It makes even less sense if one tries to make the later history of Tyre fit the prophecy: In 634 the
Christian city of Tyre fell to the Muslims. The crusaders took the city in 1124, but this, again Christian, stronghold was retaken by the Muslims in 1291. Is this loss on the part of the
Christians, too, supposed to be part of the fulfillment of Ezekiel's prophecy of many nations coming against Tyre? If so, does that mean that the either Christian or Muslim populations are still being punished
millennia later by God's wrath against the Tyrians of the sixth century BCE for rejoicing in the fall of Jerusalem to Nebuchadrezzar?