Sorry, I thought it would be clear I was referring to the timeframe. I think anyone would be hardpressed to say that human history does not have huge stretches of gender inequality. (I pondered whether social inequality has been a bigger inequality, but actually that is a pretty useless question as equality or a lack thereof are always the result of a combination of factors including race, religion, gender. Often they are so intertwined it makes not that much sense to take one out and cry "that's the perp!")
But I don't think you get an accurate picture of inequality today when you use the last 500 years as the time period under scrutiny.
I think I see the problem here. The status of women in the US and in India are well known to me and I've made assumptions these things were common knowledge. But maybe you guys aren't aware that in India gender inequality is severe. If you were you'd see right away why Dipayan's single example didn't make his case.
There's also this logic problem: One key indicator can prove gender inequality exists. (Proving the positive one only needs a single example.) But one key indicator cannot prove inequality does not exist. (Proving the negative in this case you have to look at all indicators overall.)
I cited a
single example not comprehensive evidence. But it stands as a single example because most people are well aware of dozens of other examples.
Which I think is somewhat unfair to India as there seems to be a higher number of women involved in politics than in a lot of other countries. The timeframe Dipayan thinks about is actually an interesting one as it represents the period where Indians are able to democratically select their government and their representatives. So I think it does tell us a bit about gender inequality. I'm aware that does not show the whole picture of gender relations in India. I suspect they are highly complicated due to the many different ethnic groups, castes and religious movements.
I didn't want to get into posting an educational piece about India but it would appear you both are unaware of the appalling status of women's rights in that country regardless of the cherry picked measure Dipayan chose.
Women hold more positions of power in the Indian government relative to the US. Good for them. That's progress. But at the same time India has severe class divisions and one has to look at women's conditions overall. Despite being illegal
dowries still exist and brides are still burned when the in-laws want more money.
Child brides are still a problem as is de facto slavery. Apparently
female infanticide is still a serious problem.
Can you compare all those gender issues to the US and conclude women are doing fine in India compared to here?
Maybe I am totally misreading you, but to me it seems like you dismiss Dipayan's example based on a large timeframe.
You are. I'm dismissing Dipayan's argument because he wants to cherry pick a single indicator (as opposed to citing one example while there are other obvious indicators one could cite) and in this case, it's also an indicator that does not translate 1:1 across the cultures we are discussing.
The argument history isn't relevant (hundreds of years of Presidents, for example) would only hold water if, 1), you could show things had changed and the historical record was no longer relevant, and 2), if social issues weren't typically steeped in tradition.
Sidenote of questionable value: When I think about "white male privilege" and feminism I always get the gut reaction "they accuse me of something and they are going to take something away from me". Which leads to the second gut feeling of slight resentment. I think part of the reaction of is based on "hey, what exactly did I do wrong? And what am I still allowed to do?" I'm not sure if I am annoyed by the vagueness of the term itself (and "The Patriarchy" gets the same "Do I have to take this faceless something serious or does it get more specific?" reaction) or because I have the vague notion I might benefit and therefore get away with something that I actually shouldn't.
I think part of the hatred is actually based on that the people reacting understand that at least some of the criticism delivered by feminists is quite correct and that things that have been the status quo for a while will change again. (Fore example I seriously wonder why some people think men should be the breadwinners, for most of humanity's history women worked as hard as men for the continued survival of their families. That women only do the household chores and look after the children wasn't even practical.)
I also think that feminism and other analytical movements make life more complicated than traditional gender roles in that you have to think more about what you do instead of being somewhat guided by tradition(or boxed in as it may be). But I think that is overhead that is necessary.
And herein lies one of the problems. People don't want gender equality if they perceive some cost to them. But you are faced with the fact an equal number of people may feel the opposite, why should they have less because women are relegated to second class citizen?
I get it that a white male who loses out in an affirmative action is annoyed. So was the woman or black who lost out for the same gender/ethnic disadvantage previously. No one likes it if they are the person on the disadvantaged end. If one could eliminate the original discrepancy without affirmative action the white male complaint would be valid. It would be nice if blacks and women could simply take a step forward and white men lose nothing.
But because the disadvantages are ingrained in multiple levels in the system it isn't possible to simply eliminate discrimination. Continuing the disadvantage among blacks or females because white males have to take a step back is not acceptable. In that case, how would you change the system? Would you say, screw your disadvantage, I'm not giving my advantage up? Well, then you can expect people to also say, screw your refusal to give up your advantage, the disadvantaged aren't going to let you.