Bye Rob, its been as enlightening as ever.
looking forward to see if Rob can get his apple back without forcing me against my consent.
PS Was the shower a cold one due to your obsession with talking intercourse?
The Freeman perspective is quite simple. If we are not harming another, damaging property, or using fraud in our contracts, then we cannot be governed without our consent. This means we are not engaging in things like trespassing or theft. Now JB, due to his lack of understanding of our position, comes with an example where he is clearly trespassing and committing theft, and causing harm, purposely. He then challenges us to deal with his law breaking without governing him without his consent. He thinks that since he can’t govern me on public property when I am harming no one, I can’t govern him on private land when he is committing theft. It is a prime example of his idiotic way of thinking.
He fails to distinguish between private property and pubic, and he fails to distinguish between acting in a manner that does not harm, and acting in a manner that does. Now of course he will try to avoid this distinction, or misdirect the casual observer by arguing that trespassing does not cause harm. Yet it is clearly an act of theft, according to him.
See a Freeman does not claim the right to do what JB is claiming the right to do, and therefore his example is simply not applicable. Notice also he has yet to address the questions asked of him, nor will he answer. I have mentioned sexual and commercial intercourse an equal amount of times. He will simply call my use of one type of intercourse as an example unhealthy, and completely ignore the second one.
Here is a simple question, let’s see if he will answer:
Do you JB claim the right to impose a contract on others by rejecting contract law?
Simple eh?
If he calls this gibberish, he is trying to avoid the question.
If he refuses to answer he is trying to avoid the truth.
If he speaks about one type of intercourse to misdirect (which he always does) he is trying to avoid the other type. Each however are equally suitable for highlighting the idiocy of his argument. There are certain things which require mutual consent. Intercourse of any kind being a major one. It is a prime example. JB claims he can avoid the need for mutual consent in any type of intercourse, commercial or sexual, by refusing to consent to the other parties non-consent.
Will he address this question, or ONCE AGAIN try an ad hominem attack on me to avoid the question by claiming my examples are questionable?