RandFan
Mormon Atheist
- Joined
- Dec 18, 2001
- Messages
- 60,135
Is this hypothesis falsifiable?
Here's a counter-example: The animal liberation movement started in the mid-Seventies and rapidly grew in strength from there. It has made radical changes to the laws about how animals maybe treated, in the home, commercially and scientifically. What technological or social improvement drove this change? I can't think of any technological or social innovation that is clearly related to animal welfare, started around 1970 and has been on an upward trend ever since.
Here's another counter-example, and a more general one: Any kind of social progress which doesn't defy the laws of physics given our current technological level which hasn't happened yet. There's no technological barrier that makes sexism, racism, classism, economic stratification and lack of class mobility or whatever other issue gets your personal goat a necessary part of the world, but they all still occur. If technological and social progress were the real cause of moral progress why didn't these things all vanish the moment it was technologically possible for them to vanish?
The conventional theory that the animal welfare movement was driven by reason, and that an increasing number of people are too rational to maintain an artificial division between how they think it's moral to treat one group of mammals (humans) and how they treat every other mammal seems to explain the animal welfare phenomenon much better.
I suspect what's going on here is just that progress which is socially or technologically impossible doesn't happen, because it's impossible. That doesn't mean that technological and social improvements cause the change, they just make certain changes possible.
In a way your theory is wildly optimistic. It assumes that humans are such wonderful creatures that they automatically do the most moral things possible within the constraints of society and technology. I wish that were true but I'm pretty sure it's not.
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