He didn't just oppose a Darwinist view of the world. He opposed adopting a mechanistic, materialist assumption and rule in science. That makes him an IDer whether you want to waste time continuing to deny it.
So you continue to claim. However, you have not shown this.
From what you wrote, it's not clear whether you think niches exist as potentials prior to being filled, or are simply created when they are filled.
Which is it?
Be specific.
I would have thought that the line "By this definition, niches may definitely exist independent of if there is an organism at any given time that has the necessary tools to overcome these obstacles, yes" would have provided you with the answer. Certainly some niches, using the definition that I provided, exist independent of if there are organisms filling those niches at any given time. I would not state that
all niches exist independent of organisms, but certainly some do.
Is that clear enough?
Was the apex large ocean predator whether dinosaur or whales, a niche that existed waiting to be filled?
For large stretches of evolutionary time, yes. However, I would like to add the tentative proviso that this niche did not necessarily exist at times when no organisms existed for an apex large predator to predate on. In a world where all organisms were unicellular, I don't think it is reasonable to say that such a niche existed, for instance.
Kot, Davison includes what others before him wrote in order to show that all along, the tenets of NeoDarwinism have been shown to be false. There is good reason for doing this.
Then why does he not include the data these scientists of older generations based their conclusions on? He merely quotes what their conclusions were, or more typically what their
opinions were, without mentioning what sort of data they based these opinions on. I could agree that he shows adequately that the tenets of Darwinism or NeoDarwinism has been questioned over time, which I don't think is a surprise to anyone, and hardly a point that needs to be belaboured. But without an analysis of what the holders of these opinions based their opinions on, as well as an analysis of what school of thought they represented, Davison does not show anything worthwhile.
Secondly, the vast majority of reasons for their rejecting it are still true today.
Such as? You may refer to "What X is quoted as saying in Davison's Y", as I have all the articles I could found before me on the desk, so you needn't quote the whole thing if that makes it easier.
It's sad but the reason someone like Davison brings up prior good arguments is that they were never addressed and refuted.
Please give one or more specific examples of arguments Davison raises that you feel has never been addressed or refuted, and I'll see what I can do. Otherwise, this claim of yours will have to be considered as baseless as most of your other claims.
Except he specifically objected to "materialist" views of nature. If he was just saying physical, mechanistic principles dictated orthogenesis, you'd have a point but he objected to such materialist thinking in the first place, and imo, in that regard was correct.
What is your evidence that even all forms of orthogenesis which are directed by "nonmaterialist" forces fall under the umbrella of creationism/ID?
Note the first: I am not necessarily saying that Rütimeyer was an evolutionist. I am saying that the fact that someone is not an evolutionist does not instantly make that person a creationist/IDer.
Note the second: You seem, again, to be referring to a vaster amount of evidence for your views than the Hopwood article and the Darwin letter. Is this the case? If so, please provide your evidence.
Evos have to ignore a great many things to assert their views.
Please list these things, or a subset of them. Remember: your idol Davison have to ignore the fact that quotations of someone's opinions given 50 years before molecular mechanisms started to be explored does not trump actual data.
It's not an accident that man appeared last and is the most, dare we say, advanced.
Really? So man appeared after the nylon-eating bacteria, that is, after 1935?
Also: culturally we may be the most advanced, but biologically we certainly are not.
But the evidence, even from the perspective of common descent, clearly show purpose and direction and divine guidance.
And then you will have to show that there is actually anything divine guiding it, otherwise we are back to you misunderstanding the difference between "similar" and "identical" again. Let me explain:
We would both agree, I assume, that the history of computers undoubtedly show "purpose and direction and guidance", and that this, while arguably not having a proximal divine source, is nevertheless achieved through a process dependent on an intelligent creator. We can show this by giving evidence of the existence of such a creator.
We do not agree that the history of the human organism show "purpose and direction and guidance", whether divine or mundane, nor that even an evolutionary history that would show these features would have been achieved through a process dependent on an intelligent creator. For you to convince me of this, you would have to show evidence of the existence of such a creator, and this evidence would need to be independent of the features of anything you claim it has created.
You are, again, confusing "similar" with "identical". If computers and humans are said to have had
similar histories of changes throughout time, in that they gradually morph into what we see today, then this does not in any way imply that these two histories have
identical causes.
The idea that intelligence is not involved in the origination of the universe is just wacked; maybe one of the wackiest things man has ever come up with.
On what base of knowledge and data do you establish your insights into the workings of the way things were before the universe existed? That is, what data do you use to so unequivocally rule out the pre-Universe existence of a non-intelligent cause?
Why would you assume God would need to be designed? A juvenile question on your part if I ever heard one.
On what base of knowledge and data do you establish your implied claim that your statement:
Nothing in the natural world violates this principle; hence the natural world has a cause.
does not extend to the supernatural world?