solzhenitsyn
Thinker
- Joined
- Feb 6, 2011
- Messages
- 187
I'm late to the party (story of my life) but I'd like to pose a couple of questions for FreemanMenard:
OK, even accepting this point of yours (which I don't, but for the sake of argument will), if Parliament and the courts, with the power of the police and military at their disposal, decided to change those definitions, what can you do about it?
Would you agree that when I, or any other person, is in a courthouse or being detained by the police, your own personal view on these matters is far less important than the views of the government and the police and the courts on these matters (almost to the point of irrelevance)? If not, why? Do you have a police force and military force which is more powerful than the government's?
If the government, through Parliament or the courts, says that one man can act as an agent or representative for another without mutual consent, then the answer is clearly yes. This is because the government has an army and a police force, all armed with big nasty guns, and so I'm inclined to do as they say.
Perhaps if I had my own army and my own police force (made up of like-minded people perhaps) that outnumbered the government's army and police, I might be inclined to do things differently. I might even be inclined to declare a rule that no man can act as an agent or representative for another without mutual consent. Until then, I can only dream...
In fact the government quite happily and explicitly says something far more dastardly then "the consent was not actual and merely the appearance of it." The government explicitly says that an individual person's consent is irrelevant. The government explicitly says that they will enforce their laws against "non-consenters" with naked force.
Yeah, that's because that is how it is. Nothing I post on an internet forum is capable of changing that (well, unless my posting is so eloquent and persuasive that it inspires the masses to rise up against the tyranny of the Canadian government.)
I have none. I did not elect them, and did not empower them to act as my representative. Therefore by simple absolute logic, I do not have an elected representative, and if you attempt to claim I do, you must change the definition of both elected and representative.
OK, even accepting this point of yours (which I don't, but for the sake of argument will), if Parliament and the courts, with the power of the police and military at their disposal, decided to change those definitions, what can you do about it?
Aspects of law which are merely expressed by statute and existed prior, would certainly still apply.
Statutes which do not reflect law and rely upon agreement and application, would not in my view. Can you distinguish between the two?
Would you agree that when I, or any other person, is in a courthouse or being detained by the police, your own personal view on these matters is far less important than the views of the government and the police and the courts on these matters (almost to the point of irrelevance)? If not, why? Do you have a police force and military force which is more powerful than the government's?
So to sum up:
Consent is mentioned in the Acts. We are in agreement on that.
The consent is claimed to be given by those apparently acting as representatives. We are in agreement on that.
The question has now become can one man act as an agent or representative for another without mutual consent.
If the government, through Parliament or the courts, says that one man can act as an agent or representative for another without mutual consent, then the answer is clearly yes. This is because the government has an army and a police force, all armed with big nasty guns, and so I'm inclined to do as they say.
Perhaps if I had my own army and my own police force (made up of like-minded people perhaps) that outnumbered the government's army and police, I might be inclined to do things differently. I might even be inclined to declare a rule that no man can act as an agent or representative for another without mutual consent. Until then, I can only dream...
If not then the consent was not actual and merely the appearance of it. I know this is what you do not wish to examine, and instead would prefer to simply file it as "THATS HOW IT IS", but those with open minds will look and determine if it is actual, or merely appearing to be but not.
In fact the government quite happily and explicitly says something far more dastardly then "the consent was not actual and merely the appearance of it." The government explicitly says that an individual person's consent is irrelevant. The government explicitly says that they will enforce their laws against "non-consenters" with naked force.
Or would you rather just proclaim 'Thats how it is!"
Yeah, that's because that is how it is. Nothing I post on an internet forum is capable of changing that (well, unless my posting is so eloquent and persuasive that it inspires the masses to rise up against the tyranny of the Canadian government.)