Daft? Nothing to do with it? Why do you once again try to avoid it? Someone claimed that the Freeman perspective was self-debunking, and claimed they could ignore contract law, if we choose to not consent to their contract. How is it not on point? Oh wait! You need to avoid it, so you now simply call it daft, and ignore it.
I didn't avoid; I answered -
Once again, statutes aren't contracts.
Your question is daft and/or intended to avoid the issue, highlighted once again by you avoiding what I put to you -
And following up my previous questions, are you going to provide the proof to support your claim about not being bound by statutes because you don't consent to them? "Yes or no" as you say.
Now, to the rest of your post
I do not deny selling him a package, as I do not remember as it was two years ago. I may have.
Now we're getting somewhere. You don't deny it. Sources elsewhere suggest you did sell him the package.
I do deny that he employed the guidance I espouse.
On what basis? Everything suggests that he followed your advice to the letter.
Now one for you: IS HE AN ADULT AND RESPONSIBLE FOR HIS OWN ACTIONS? OR AM I RESPONSIBLE FOR THE ACTIONS HE TOOK AS AN ADULT DUE TO WORDS I SPOKE TO HIM TWO YEARS BEFORE HE WENT TO COURT?
Seriously, do you claim I am responsible for his actions? Am I the one who put him in jail? Am I responsible for yours too? Do you feel he is there unlawfully or not? And if not, and I did not put him there, why blame me? And if he is there lawfully, then why blame me?
Because people who, like you, hold themselves out as being in a position of being able to give legal advice owe duties in the process. If a lawyer gives bad advice which is relied upon he is liable for the consequences. Whether the recipient should have known better or not is immaterial.
Yes, you are responsible.
Here's one, do statutes require consent or not? Or will you label that as daft and simply ignore it?
Already answered, repeatedly. No, statutes do not require your consent. They are not contracts.
Finally, is mutual non-consent required to avoid a contract, as JB states?
If neither party agrees to a contract, there is no contract. Arguably this is one means of "avoiding" a contract. There isn't one in the first place. It isn't daft at all but it has nothing to do with statutes, which are your baby. JB isn't daft, but your constant repeating of this question is, as described.
Once again - are you going to provide the proof to support your claim about not being bound by statutes because you don't consent to them? "Yes or no" as you say.
Looks to me like the answer is "no". For someone who sells advice claiming that you have the means to avoid all statutory liabilities, your inability to address this point is positively criminal.
I'll check in later to look at your latest efforts to avoid. One thing's for sure, you won't answer my question because you can't. You can't answer my question because you don't have the answers. By selling advice claiming that you do, you are acting dishonestly. Very well done JB for hounding you on this. I wish more people did.
PS - thank you ComfySlippers.