Ah brilliant, you're really losing it now. I don't know how many times I need to repeat that there is no link between consenting to government and whether an individual is bound by a statute or not. Tell you what, here's a link to my post again -
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7526204&postcount=1791
You'll need to explain that one further because you're not making any sense to to me. Your remark certainly doesn't reflect my opinion though, which for present purposes can be summarised as:
1. there is no link between consenting to government and whether an individual is bound by a statute or not;
2. you claim to not be bound by statutes because you don't consent to them, yet you are unwilling and unable to prove it;
3. your claim that individuals are no longer bound by statutes if they claim that they don't consent to them is untrue;
4. you make money from this claim;
5. by reason of 3 and 4 above anyone would rightly conclude that you are a conman ("if the cap fits....")
This thread stretches to 45 pages, there are hundreds of others on this forum, thousands elsewhere, and you still cannot get beyond first base.
Like Stacey, I don't believe that you practice what you preach. You do display the hallmarks of a person with questionable business practices who also has a strong narcissistic streak though.
Are you going to provide the proof to support your claim about not being bound by statutes because you don't consent to them? "Yes or no" as you say.