Evidence for why we know the New Testament writers told the truth.

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Holocaust deniers, 9/11 truthers and moon hoaxers are all different kettles of fish to multiple biographies of someone who never existed. All the examples mentioned involve a lack of understanding over concepts of evidence and analysis. The "every gospel writer was wrong" idea requires multiple full-sensory hallucinations.
this isn't true. you are assuming that these "biographers" couldn't also have a lack of understanding of evidence and analysis. Similarly, you are assuming that these writers Didn't have a fundamentally flawed view of common knowledge at the time. Considering that the early Christians all emerged from a apocalyptic cult, ones based upon the idea of a nearing end of the world, fundamentally flawed views of reality seem to be part and parcel of their being.

2000 years from now, what would the difference in form be between the writings of a gospel author and that of a holocaust denier? Both have elements that are fact. Both have elements that are clearly fantasy. From that vantage point, we wouldn't have the luxury to know which ones held beliefs that were so easily verifiably false.
 
[...]I don't see how I'm committing a straw man fallacy by using the term conspiracy position, because that's the position being adopted."

Step one: Make sure you understand what a conspiracy is.

Step two: Learn what a straw man fallacy is.
 
Yes we do... there are people who doubt the holocaust, and have an argument against every piece of evidence presented. The historical method needs to be applied to find where the preponderance of evidence points.

Look at the subject of this thread. Thank you.
 
I guess it depends what level you set the requirement at for fact.
I set the requirement for fact here:
dictionary.com definition of said:
–noun
1. something that actually exists; reality; truth
which can only be named, "fact," by,
dictionary.com definition of said:
–noun
1. evidence sufficient to establish a thing as true, or to produce belief in its truth.
2. anything serving as such evidence
3. the act of testing or making trial of anything; test; trial
[eta]which has not been offered.[/eta]
I guess I could use terms like "undisputed theory" or "undisputed possibility" but I would feel uncomfortable using such terms with other parts of history that nobody doubts.
No, you couldn't. You could use the term, "disputed, but unprovable either way, theory," or, "disputed, but unprovable either way, possibility."

To name the existence of Jesus as, "undisputed," is irrational logic.
eta:

I don't understand why "cherry-picking" is not part of the thread. That is the nature of historical sources. The gospel writers did write the truth... sometimes.
If you do not "cherry-pick" and instead make arguments that "yes they wrote the truth" or "no they didn't write the truth" then both sides will be wrong.
As I have said, the evidence comes from applying the historical method to the sources provided.
The OP insinuates absolute truth and having the evidence to prove it, which has been done by neither DOC or you.
"What evidence is there that the sources for the holocaust are correct?" someone might ask. There is no "evidence".
Rubbish, as was pointed out earlier by ddt.

Sucks to be you, since you claimed that there are none.
I think he meant that as a way to say we haven't proven a dubunking of his claim that there aren't any; although, that's ludicrous. GB's post about a specific biblical scholar more than doubles as proof that there is at least one.
 
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The assertion that JesusTM existed as a historical fact is laughable almost to the point as dismissing your assertion unreservedly. Aside from apologists, evangelicals, the faithful and bare faced liars, nobody with any decent level of education ('o' level or higher) believes this to be true. To assert that JesusTM is an historical figure is to assert that 2000 odd years ago some geezer:
Surfed without a board.
Fed 1000's with a fish sandwich.
Dodged his round at a wedding.
Was the best MD that Lazarus had ever consulted.
Was a whizz at reversing ear-ectomies.
Could perform post-mortem appearances.

Or are you saying some guy travelled about the desert, preaching a new kind of religion that may or may not have been called Jesus.

I think most people would say that JesusTM is a crock, but Jesus may, just may have existed.



Who's bringing the beer to the pizza-party?
 
Given the initial poster's inability to provide someone who disputes this, I'd be interested to see if you can, or indeed if you can answer the arguments given :)


Perhaps you meant to write "Given Akehnaten's unwillingness to provide lists of names of people who believe various things because we've been playing that stupid game for years . . ." but you got a bit mixed up.

Not to worry.

Instead of attempting yet a whole new line of appeals to authority you might like to cut to the chase and tell us what evidence led these various people to their beliefs.
 
I'm guessing this thread will have "gone places" in the 496 previous pages... but hey, I'm going to reply to the very first post. :p
Doc's argument is actually a pretty strong one. The writers probably did believe what they were writing down, and for that reason it cannot be considered "mythical" on the level of Greek or Egyptian myths. Instead you have to treat our sources for Jesus as historical sources, accepting some points and disregarding others.
This is actually pretty easy to do. Was Jesus born of a virgin? No. 2 books written decades after his death isn't enough to warrant a belief that scientific rules temporarily didn't apply. Did Jesus know John the Baptist? Yes. 4 books written decades after his death is enough to warrant a belief that one Jew kinda knew another Jew.

I'm really looking forward to Bart Ehrman's upcoming book on this actually. Dunno if anyone else is?

If you mean his latest: Forged which I'm halfway through,all he has to say is that most of the writings in the N/T are forged and not by who is claimed as the authors. The synoptics for example were all by anonymous writers, only much later given names such as Mark, Luke etc. Around half the Pauline writings were actually written by Paul, the rest are forgeries written in his name so as to be taken seriously by the readers. That goes for the "acts of the apostles" as well.
 
Show us some examples of what you mean.
From the NT.
This sounds interesting.
Ok then: Jesus knew John the Baptist
The sources we have available are close to the events.
The sources include independent testimony even though some had the others available.
The event fits the historical context, and rough social standing.
Christians are unlikely to have made up Jesus associating with an apocalypticist as they knew the apocalypse hadn't happened.
Christians are unlikely to have made up Jesus associating with a baptist who worked for sinners, as Jesus wasn't a sinner. (The counterargument to this that Jesus died for our sins wasn't actually Christian doctrine until later. The initial idea was the forthcoming end of the world.)
Thus it seems likely that Jesus knew John the Baptist.

It's not really that interesting. It's the same historical method that is applied to other sources of the time, and it doesn't find especially exciting facts.

Parts of the NT are sincere historical sources because they are presented as such?
Or they are fakes?
'All or nothing' is your argument? That makes no sense to me at all, especially in light of those accounts of Jesus' trial.
I don't understand why you have rephrased my argument as "all or nothing". Are there any alternatives to a part of the NT being sincere or being a fake? Keep in mind that sincere doesn't mean "true" yet. But yes, the fact that parts are presented as sincere history means they should be studied as such, because the idea that they are fakes is highly unlikely. With regard to Jesus' trial, they are sincere historical accounts, but when the historical method is applied, they turn out to be of very little historical value.

And who are these known different authors 'with corroborating yet unique reports'?
It seems I worded myself too confusingly. We do not know who the authors are (apart from Paul really), but we know which are different.
 
Will he go 'round in circles . . ?

Yes, yes he will.

As discussed, the only alternative to parts being sincere historical sources is them being fakes, and conspiratorial fakes at that given the cross-source agreement on many points. This is very unlikely.
 
Well that's VERY convenient for you isn't it. Loftus isn't credible because he didn't graduate from a University you approve of. :rolleyes:
No you get me wrong. His education is totally fine. My issue was that he's totally detached from mainstream academia, and doesn't get anywhere near the criteria I set out.

Yes! Flimsy! That's what happens when the only piece of "evidence" exists in tattered remnants of 11th century manuscripts. And there is no extra-biblical evidence. All the available evidence demonstrates only that Christians existed. It does not demonstrate that Jesus existed.
This is why I was talking about biblical evidence (and non-canonical christian evidence).


Actually it's NOT. You obviously have no clue as to what constitutes evidence. You're as bad as DOC. I don't believe that you are an Atheist.
I would be interested to hear the grounds on which you would accept our knowledge of Pythagoras and others while dismissing our knowledge of Jesus.


That's your problem if you won't accept legitimate Biblical Scholars because they don't meet your high "standards" (which are pretty low if your posts are any example).



No! I (and others) have already wasted a lot of valuable time demonstrating that you have nothing to back your assertions.

Akhenaten! he's all yours.

GB

:) You now are matching the other guy above who said he could do something and then hasn't done, while refusing to concede the point.
I said there are no biblical scholars in accredited universities who think that Jesus didn't exist. You said there are. You have been unable to name one. You claimed earlier that a positive trait was being able to accept such errors, but you are now choosing to ignore it instead.
 
As discussed, the only alternative to parts being sincere historical sources is them being fakes, and conspiratorial fakes at that given the cross-source agreement on many points. This is very unlikely.

False dichotomy fallacy.
 
You now are matching the other guy above who said he could do something and then hasn't done, while refusing to concede the point.
I said there are no biblical scholars in accredited universities who think that Jesus didn't exist. You said there are. You have been unable to name one. You claimed earlier that a positive trait was being able to accept such errors, but you are now choosing to ignore it instead.
An idea of a "Jesus" existed yes. But was this a single man or sayings from a myriad of roaming fire and brimstone mad rabbis who haunted the Palestinian countryside in those days?
 
That is pretty much what I think too, but for a couple of things. The main one is that Jesus knew John the Baptist. We are accepting that both these characters exist, now in all four gospels and a non-canonical gospel they have multiple run-ins. Often inconsequential ones. The accounts across the gospels sometimes match and sometimes differ and sometimes contradict.


You don't get to just gloss over this bit.

Where multiple people are describing the same event and their accounts differ we are entitled to point out that at least some of them aren't telling the truth.

Aren't we?


The chance that absolutely all of that is false strikes me as unlikely, especially since the message about Jesus gains nothing at all by its inclusion, so this is something that I accept probably happened.


All of what? You haven't provided any evidence yet, for biblical Jesus, for John the Baptist or for their multiple meet-ups.

That something strikes you as being either likely or unlikely has no bearing at all on our considerations of likelihood, and whether the whole fairytale benefits from the inclusion or otherwise of various sidebar stories is also irrelevant in terms of their veracity. That's argumentum ad consequentiam, I think.


Holocaust deniers, 9/11 truthers and moon hoaxers are all different kettles of fish to multiple biographies of someone who never existed. All the examples mentioned involve a lack of understanding over concepts of evidence and analysis.


Just like religious apologetics.


The "every gospel writer was wrong" idea requires multiple full-sensory hallucinations.


Piffle.

Flat-out lying for Jeebus is a far more viable explanation. Dog knows, there's enough of it about.
 
Not really. Go over to the CT section and see those guys in action. They try to raise doubts about the authenticity of the Wannsee minutes, or claim that Hoess was tortured before his testimony at Nuremberg. Mention Eichmann's testimony, or the Höfle telegram, or Lukaszewiecz' 1946 report on human ashes at Treblinka and they try to change the subject. Just a couple of pieces of evidence right off the top of my head.
Yup. I'm not as knowledgeable about the holocaust denial theories as you are, but my guess is they pick up on relatively minor points in each of those sources. The point is that the preponderance of evidence points towards it happening, even with little curiosities or errors here and there in the sources.

Anyway, the OP of this thread contends that the NT writers wrote the truth and nothing but the truth. Which is obviously false, as the gospels are contradictory on many points. To take a recent topic of discussion: Luke 2 describes how Jesus was born during a Roman census instituted by governor Quirinius, whereas Matthew claims he was born during Herod the Great's reign. That's at least 10 years difference. Obviously, one of them (or both) is (are) wrong. The OP has then trotted out some "scholars" who claimed a very tortured translation of Luke 2:2 - without giving the details how that translation can even be a correct translation.
Naturally, the contention that they wrote nothing but the truth is false. The contention even that they were always primarily interested in historical accuracy is false.
With regards to Jesus' birth, that's an interesting point that I've talked about in this thread. The presence of wild contradiction doesn't actually mean that the stories can be dismissed. It makes the stories much more interesting.
If the two accounts conspired, they could have done a much better job of getting the stories to work, so it is reason to believe that, for this tale, they were independent. But they both agree on a few points. One is that Jesus was born in Bethlehem. This is unsurprising as that was predicted in the old testament, so this could have been made up by two independent sources quite easily. Another is that Jesus was from Nazareth.
That is more interesting. Why would two independent sources make up stories that are wildly contradictory but make sure that Jesus comes from a small village that nobody had heard of? A good bet is that Jesus really was from Nazareth, and so the two authors couldn't claim he was from Bethlehem, and instead did some horrible fudging to make him be both. The two authors picked different solutions, and so we have the wild contradictions.

The gospels are obviously foremost theology. When you claim:

how can you distinguish this from just giving a historical background? Nowadays novelists who write historical novels tend to be good at providing a convincing historical background to their otherwise fictional story. Why not the gospel writers too?
This is an interesting point. Egyptian myths might include Pharaohs and Egyptian landmarks that really existed, when the story is actually fabricated. My argument in general would be that there is much more historical reporting than in myths. The writers frequently give us what day of the week something happened, or will mention an upcoming festival, to give us a frame of reference in time. It could still be historical background to a fictional story, but this becomes less likely.
The other point is the agreement among independent sources. If one author makes up that Jesus had 12 disciples, then how come the other authors all think so too? Not to mention paul thinking this was the case as well?
 
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