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Can pressure be negative?

All this is really interesting, and I am sure, of real interest to some individuals who must deal with it. I'm not sure who they are, or what they plan on doing with it, but I shall watch with interest and wonder.
As for myself, I made the Dean's list the year I took Heat Transfer and Thermodynamics, and never did that again, but it was Engineering Thermo and HT. In that respect, entropy is always a positive value, and heat flows from high to low. Delta-T is important, and measured positively from an absolute zero. It works for me.
In the mean time, I shall dwell in the world where pV=nRT is a reasonable approximation, when I actually have to deal with such things, and will probably remain in the realm of the Newtonian approximations of velocity and motion for the rest of my life, whilst realizing that they are approximations, but are good enough in the practical world I deal with.
You guys can deal with "how many angels can dance on the head of a pin", except in this case, it may have some practical applications. But I will be either an amused, by-passed spectator, or eaten by worms, by the time it does happen.
I will follow this, and if i have questions, will ask them, but I am certainly not going to argue.
Carry on.
 
The basic problem IMO is that this group relies upon math and *ONLY* math to support all their beliefs.
You are wrong, Michael Mozina. This group depends on theory backed up by experiment. You though ignore both in order to appease your misconceptions of physics, e.g.
Why is the the calculated pressure exerted by the Casimir effect negative?
Why is the the measured pressure exerted by the Casimir effect negative?
First asked 7th April 2011

I can't even get them to explain what they would physically add or subtract from a "pure" vacuum (no particles or kinetic energy of any sort) to create a "negative pressure."
Your ignorance continues:
There is nothing subtracted from the vacuum to create a negative pressure, e.g.
  • The Casimir effect constrains the allowed energy of virtual particles within the plates., This creates an attractive force between the plates. By the definition of pressure, the pressure exerted by an attractive force is negative.
  • The negative pressure exerted by a cosmological constant is a result of the energy density remaining constant while the volume of the universe increases (P=-dE/dV).
 
As for myself, I made the Dean's list the year I took Heat Transfer and Thermodynamics, and never did that again, but it was Engineering Thermo and HT. In that respect, entropy is always a positive value, and heat flows from high to low.

Entropy IS always positive. The definition doesn't admit negative values. So I presume you meant temperature.

Did you ever take a class on semiconductors, or encounter the Fermi distribution function?
 
:)

You guys consistently ignore that fact that your mathematical formulas relate to REAL PHYSICAL PARTICLES. In the experiment cited, those particles are ATOMS. There are a finite number of them in the experiment and they only ever achieve a FINITE temperature that can be changed with FINITE amounts of energy! Hoy Like I said, you only recognize the math, and you ignore the physics entirely.

As usual Michael, you're the one ignoring the physics. There are empirical lab experiments that demonstrate the existence and reality of infinite and negative temperature - Zig linked to them.

You seem to be under the misapprehension that temperature and energy are the same thing, since you keep conflating them. But they're not the same thing, and achieving infinite (or negative) temperature does not necessarily require infinite energy.
 
As usual Michael, you're the one ignoring the physics. There are empirical lab experiments that demonstrate the existence and reality of infinite and negative temperature - Zig linked to them.

You seem to be under the misapprehension that temperature and energy are the same thing, since you keep conflating them. But they're not the same thing, and achieving infinite (or negative) temperature does not necessarily require infinite energy.

Or that temperature must always correspond to the kinetic motion of atoms, etc. and in such a way that approaching infinity means the kinetic energy also approaches infinity, always.
 
Entropy IS always positive. The definition doesn't admit negative values. So I presume you meant temperature.
erm. oops. yeah...
Did you ever take a class on semiconductors, or encounter the Fermi distribution function?
Dude, I'm an ME. I was gonna be a EE, but they kept talking about holes moving. Now, every hole I ever dug or drilled stayed put (with a few exceptions where they mysteriously ended up in the wrong place), so I knew they were talking BS. So I changed over to work with stuff I can SEE!:D
 
erm
Dude, I'm an ME. I was gonna be a EE, but they kept talking about holes moving. Now, every hole I ever dug or drilled stayed put (with a few exceptions where they mysteriously ended up in the wrong place), so I knew they were talking BS. So I changed over to work with stuff I can SEE!:D

I guess you have never seen a bubble in a liquid move?
 
There's no need to personalize the conversation. Please keep the the brain pain y'all find so much fun. ;)
Replying to this modbox in thread will be off topic  Posted By: kmortis
 
I have spoken to now a number of noted physics professionals, and can't get any one of them to agree that an actual infinity can be measured. In fact none of them understood why the insistence on infinite heat being a physically real entity could be qualified from the relevant equations nor assumed from anything to do with negative temperature for that matter. They also were rather scathing and derogatory about assuming limits in integrals are actually real quantities (actually more so than they were about the odd assumptions about -K). That is to say not one of the 10 or so experts in physics I asked thought that infinite heat meant an infinite physical quantity at all, and that it was absurd to assume what this guy did. Most of this was on other forums but one person did email me with his response. Which I'll include here.

As far as I can see the Panck limit is the limit of temperature in the universe, and it is the temperature of a substance at the big bang, above this since all forces are indiscreet and this is all the energy in the universe the term heat becomes meaningless. It's a large number but nothing about it or its related particles is infinite either. Average material temperature (particularly in statistical ensembles) and kinetic energy are also intimately related to heat so I have been told and to say otherwise is complete misinformation. The temperature is not the value of each particles heat in a substance but is more likely to approach an average overall heat concern to the material in question in relation to ensembles of systems with many kinetic concerns.

I've decided this clearly isn't an environment that is going to be conducive to my studies, more of a clique where people blindly follow eroneous claims without bothering to check them with established physics so I'll just post this and then leave you to pretend whatever reality you like is actually what theory says. Seems easier to let you run around in infinite circles than to argue with such arrogant conceits.

Date: April 30th, 2011

Subject: Infinity and Infinite Temperatures - from Peter Bailey (Dr. E.P.A. Bailey)



Dear Gary,

The point you make is very pertinent about infinities arising in the mathematics of various equations of theoretical physics .



It touches on a very sensitive and controversial aspect of many equations and phenomena in physics – many physicists have fundamentally opposed views about such infinities.



You are most welcome to post/email/send my reply on this, provided you credit me, Dr. E.P.A. Bailey, for it.



The link you sent is related to the Boltzmann distribution equation for energies of ‘molecules’, and there is a very simple answer about this at absolute zero Kelvin temperature, which I found on the Internet, as explained later..



Other famous equations which throw up infinities in the mathematics include those of Einstein’s Special and General Relativity, e.g. E=m times c squared, what happens at the ‘event horizon/Schwarzchild radius’ with ‘Black Holes’, and time and space measurements as ‘viewed from/by a photon’ travelling at the speed of light. The conventional explanation to avoid an infinite energy of a particle travelling at the speed of light is to say that it has zero mass. This and other explanations related to various infinities are varied and controversial.



It is a vast field of complicated concepts to go through all such equations and infinities, so I cannot go into it all in detail her and now, if ever. Instead it should be recognised that by definition, infinity is larger than any number which anyone can write down or measure, so by definition no infinitely large quantity can be measured. Similarly no infinitely small quantity can be measured.



Nevertheless, we can conceive ( or at least some can, it seems that others cannot or will not) of an infinitely large universe, with infinite variations within it locally, even though we can never measure its size, if it is infinite, by definition. Many physicists seem to be ‘more comfortable’ with the idea of a finite (but unbounded) universe, like the surface of a sphere, and some seem to just have what appears to be a ‘religious’ belief in either an infinite, or a finite, universe, with no proof for or against either concept. Some might say that from the definition of infinity, such proof either way is impossible.



It is probably useful to look at some of the links thrown up by a search on Google for, ‘Definition of Infinity’, for example...



http://www.thefreedictionary.com/infinity



http://encyclopedia2.thefreedictionary.com/Infinity



http://www.brainyquote.com/words/in/infinity178405.html



http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20070526151509AAaPEm6



and other links which you can find with a similar search.



It is often useful in the equations of theoretical physics to say that some quantity gets smaller and smaller until it is infinitely small at an infinite distance away – but we cannot measure that this is true an infinite distance away. For example, Newton’s inverse square law of gravity ( which is approximated by Einstein’s General Relativity), has the force between 2 masses decreasing by 1 over the square of the distance apart, which decreases to infinitely small (effectively zero), if the 2 masses are an infinite distance apart – but this can never be measured to be true or not with infinite distances.



Indeed astronomical measurements since around the 1920s suggest that the inverse square law in not correct at large distances involving galaxies, which has led to dark matter, or modified gravitational laws being proposed, controversially. I suggest you do a search on Google for ‘Dark Matter’ and/or the MOND theory of Gravitation if you wish to know more about such concepts.



Even with such ‘patches’ to gravitational theory, such new theories can never be fully verified for their behaviour at infinite distances, by the definition of infinity. All we can do is just go on trying to measure things at larger and larger distances, and also at smaller and smaller distances. For extremely small distances the inverse square laws of gravitation and electrical attraction (coulomb’s law) may also not apply, although no such variations at small distance have yet been found. By definition we can never measure whether such force laws are valid or not at infinitely small distances. I suggest you do a search on Google for ‘ Inverse Square Law Small Distances’, for more on such topics where a number of groups have been trying to look for such variations at small distances quite recently – and have still not found any such variations.



My personal view about the infinities, is that a usually measurable quantity which becomes infinitely large in an equation, implies that the theory behind the equation, or its interpretation, is incomplete, or incorrect.



Exceptions are where some quantity becomes infinitely small in an equation dependent on an infinitely large distance or time after some initial point in time, in which case I think it is acceptable to say that the mathematics of the equation is just saying that to within our current limits of knowledge, such quantities become smaller than we can currently measure at as large distances and time measurements which we can currently measure. For larger distances and times than we can currently make such measurements, however, the equations of the theory may be incorrect or incomplete, so we should always bear this in mind.



Now for the good answer about the zero Kelvin temperature problem which you gave a link about.



I did a search on Google for, ‘Boltzmann’, which gave links which included a good answer about the Boltzmann distribution at zero Kelvin temperature.



The formula for the Boltzmann Distribution is described in...



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boltzmann_distribution



The above article says that, ‘The Boltzmann distribution applies only to particles at a high enough temperature and low enough density that quantum effects can be ignored, and the particles are obeying Maxwell–Boltzmann statistics.’



Thus his formula is not meant to apply to absolute zero Kelvin, and so the reasoning about ‘negative temperatures’, etc, in the link which you sent is not applicable.



You may be interested in reading a bit about Boltzmann, who was widely recognised as brilliant, but probably had undiagnosed bipolar disorder.



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ludwig_Boltzmann



You may also be interested in the following link about the solving of some Boltzmann equations which were unsolved for 140 years until around May 2010.



http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2010/05/100513162755.htm



It could be said, and it is what I think is probably the case, that any infinitely large quantities arising in an equation of physics indicates that the theory and related equations is most probably incomplete, or incorrect.



A classic example of this is the ‘Ultra Violet Catastrophe’, where a quantity did go to infinity in an old theory (teh Rayleigh-Jeans theory), but it was resolved and pinned down by a later superior theory by Max Planck. The old theory was only a good approximation for a certain range of the variables.



I did a search on Google for ‘Ultraviolet Catastrophe’, and among other links found...



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ultraviolet_catastrophe



Another infinity problem is that of ‘Renormalisation’ in quantum theory, which you may also like to look up. This quantum theory related problem is, however, very complex, and I have not yet had time myself to look into it, and even understand exactly how it arises or what exactly it is, although I do understand that it is strongly related to how the inverse square laws blow up at a radius of zero, as noted by the Nobel Prize winner Stephen Weinberg in his books on Quantum Field Theory. You may like to do searches on Google on such topics.



I hope the above is of interest and helps. I think that such infinities in physical equations throw up some of the most interesting, important and puzzling problems in theoretical physics, which are usually at the cutting edge of theoretical and, indeed, experimental, physics.



Best Regards,

His PhD was in an astronomy related field but he's actually an expert in the area of fluid flow dynamics, and particularly in the maths of Navier-Stokes, and the postulation of a solution. So I presume he's qualified - unlike me - enough to have an opinion at least, even if it does seem pretty much the accepted mainstream opinion on infinities.


If any one wants more links to various sources I went to (let me reiterate all of whom were just bemused pretty much by the assumptions made by this guy) then you can email me at

sidhe747@yahoo.com

If anyone's interested in the real story I'd be glad to point out some noted professionals which wont misguide you who post on more formal physics forums and or are available to discuss their subject. Admittedly none of them were experts on low temperature materials science and neither is this guy if he insists on this nonsense (actually I'd be amazed if he worked in the field labouring under such delusions, as someone at some point would of pointed out he was woefully misguided), but most were professionals in the field at the very least, or educated to a level where they are allowed to have an opinion. ;)

I will leave you to it I don't think this is a healthy environment for anyone studying this subject, too many snobs and too many hangers on. I will probably end up learning all the wrong things if I remain (because I am not allowed to have an opinion) so I will with regret leave since the rest of the forum seemed much less "up itself".

Have fun.

Edited by LashL: 
Removed off-topic content. If you would like to discuss Forum Management issues, please do so in the appropriate sub-forum.


Oh and you can all spare me the pithy comments on my exit, I happen to think scientific integrity is more important than these people do, so sue me.
 
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Probably, ENERGY TRAVEL from one level to other level, is the PRIME reason to many physics terms--flow, wind, pressure(?), motion etc. Can it be?
 
I have spoken to now a number of noted physics professionals, and can't get any one of them to agree that an actual infinity can be measured. In fact none of them understood why the insistence on infinite heat being a physically real entity could be qualified from the relevant equations nor assumed from anything to do with negative temperature for that matter.

I hilighted your problem: we're not talking about infinite heat, we're talking about infinite temperature. They are not the same thing. Your continued confusion on this point indicates that you still do not understand what temperature is.

They also were rather scathing and derogatory about assuming limits in integrals are actually real quantities

That's nice. It's also irrelevant, since you were the one who brought up integral limits. It never had anything to do with what we were discussing.

As far as I can see the Panck limit is the limit of temperature in the universe

The universe as a whole does not support negative temperatures. So this is really just a statement about the maximum energy density of the universe (and even there, it's not an actual limit, but rather the point at which we can expect our current theories to run into problems). This limit is irrelevant to systems which DO support negative temperatures, and can achieve infinite temperature at quite modest energy densities.

Average material temperature (particularly in statistical ensembles) and kinetic energy are also intimately related to heat so I have been told and to say otherwise is complete misinformation.

So you've "been told". Sorry, but what you've been told is the misinformation. You still clearly don't know what temperature even is.

The temperature is not the value of each particles heat in a substance but is more likely to approach an average overall heat concern to the material in question in relation to ensembles of systems with many kinetic concerns.

No. That is not what temperature is.

I've decided this clearly isn't an environment that is going to be conducive to my studies, more of a clique where people blindly follow eroneous claims without bothering to check them with established physics

Sorry, this IS established physics. It's rather easy to find in almost any textbook on statistical physics. I can even quote some textbooks for you, if you care to learn.

His PhD was in an astronomy related field but he's actually an expert in the area of fluid flow dynamics

So... not an expert on thermodynamics, and also doesn't study systems which do support negative temperatures.

But why the hell were you even asking him about Boltzmann distributions and not Fermi or Bose distributions?

Furthermore, nothing in his answer actually addresses infinite temperature at all. He seemed more concerned about what to do with zero temperature. Which is actually quite correct: zero temperature is infinite Beta (whereas infinite temperature is zero Beta), and Beta is more fundamental than temperature. 1/T can become problematic if T goes to zero, but it's very well-behaved when T goes to infinity. So his answer is essentially irrelevant to our discussion. Which is no surprise, really, given that he's answering whatever strange representation of our discussion you offered him, not the actual discussion itself, and the two likely bear little resemblance.

I will probably end up learning all the wrong things if I remain (because I am not allowed to have an opinion)

Oh, there's little risk of you learning the wrong things if you refuse to learn at all.
 
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I still say this is a silly arguement. Most people don't work at levels of atmosphere AND seperation that these effects will have an effect. A fair few folk will operate at the required level of vacuum, but very rarely at the same time as having to deal with the minimal seperations required to achive Casimir effects.
 
No, it's actually directly related to you confusion on what "infinity" means.

I know perfectly well what infinity is. Since Beta = 0 when a paramagnet is demagnetized, temperature is infinite. Quite simple, really.

If you know what temperature is. Which, ultimately, is the part you're having trouble with. You don't know the basic definitions of the terms under discussion. This happened before with pressure (and you still haven't demonstrated that you know what it is), and it's happening now with temperature. How can you draw any conclusions about temperature when you clearly don't even know what temperature is?

Your failures are as basic as they could possibly be.
 
No, it's actually directly related to you confusion on what "infinity" means.

Michael, I doubt there's much point in my trying to teach you something, but here goes anyway.

Suppose you're a surveyor assigned to make a map of some terrain. The map will indicate elevation with contour lines. So, part of your job is to measure the gradient of the land at each point - that is, you record the slope of the ground. Slope is defined to be the "rise over the run": 0 for level ground, 1 for a 45 degree grade, and - you guessed it - infinite for a vertical cliff.

Now suppose you're doing your job surveying in a very mountainous area. You're surveying a grade that gets steeper and steeper until it becomes vertical, and then it actually curls over a bit more into an overhang.

You've just observed a certain physical, real quantity - the slope - increase to infinity and then become negative. And it's really not a big deal, is it?

That's a pretty close analog of what happens in these infinite/negative temperature systems.
 
Mozina:

I will make this attempt; let's see if you really have a genuine desire to learn:
If you would review the exchange I had with Ziggurat about the definition of temperature (ABOVE) and try to suppress your preconceived notions, you might learn that you are clinging to an understanding of temperature that is not consistent with the definition used in modern physics. Your notion of what temperature is simply does not apply. You can also read the wikipedia article (HERE) to help rid yourself of your misconceptions. Give it a try!
 
I still say this is a silly arguement. Most people don't work at levels of atmosphere AND seperation that these effects will have an effect. A fair few folk will operate at the required level of vacuum, but very rarely at the same time as having to deal with the minimal seperations required to achive Casimir effects.
I would say that that is an silly argument displaying some ignorance.
There is no "required level of vacumm" or separation. The Casimir effect is always there:
In fact, at separations of 10 nm—about 100 times the typical size of an atom—the Casimir effect produces the equivalent of 1 atmosphere of pressure (101.325 kPa), the precise value depending on surface geometry and other factors.
The reason that the Casimir effect is measured experimentally in vacuum chambers is because we cannot (yet!) measure the forces between surfaces that are nanometers apart. So scientists currently make the other pressures in the experiment negligible so that they can measure the Casimir effect at larger separations.

P.S. Scientists working with nanotechnology have to cope with the Casimir effect because it in general causes things to stick together.

You seem to be acknowledging that scientists do know what they are talking about, i.e. the Casimir effect exists theoretically and experimentally. Can I take it that your answers to:
Why is the the calculated pressure exerted by the Casimir effect negative?
Why is the the measured pressure exerted by the Casimir effect negative?
First asked 7th April 2011

are
  • There are no problems with theoretical result being that the exerted by the Casimir effect is negative.
  • There are no problems with experimental result being that the exerted by the Casimir effect is negative.
Or do you have actualanswers to the 2 questions?
 
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