Pharaoh was the name of any administrative city that did not come to be a reference to the king until around the 7th c. BC. It was the equivalent of the modern references such as "The White House (or 10 Downing) issued a statement ..." Any use of the word to refer to the king directly prior to the 7th c. BC is an anachronism. In every case but those involving religious beliefs anachronisms are evidence of the earliest possible creation date.
Bullcrap. The term pharaoh (actually, PR-AA in egyptian) has been used for the god-king since at least Tuthmoses III, in the 15'th century BC, a good half a frikken millennium before the estimated date of writing the Genesis, even more so before the Exodus. Amenhotep III in the 14'th century BCE is actually addressed as a pharaoh in a letter addressed to him. And before that, it's been used for the pharaoh's palace.
In fact the oldest John (Judah) Maccabe as the DWD thing is nonsense. The actual connection is through his son John Hyrcanus who used military conquest to impose the worship of Yahweh on the people of Iodumaea, Samaria and Galilee. This is found in Wars of the Jews by Josephus the turncoat priest of Yahweh.
I never said I knew who that David was. That was in fact the caveat I was agreeing with: it's just a name, and we don't know exactly who or what it was. It doesn't even necessarily have to be a person, in fact. There are tribe names who aren't based on persons at all, but on places or historical ways to define themselves, and their invented ancestor brothers are just symbolic things to cement an alliance.
Not sure why you go on about Judah Maccabee, though. I don't think anyone actually claimed in this thread that a 2nd century BC ruler would be referenced on a 9'th-8'th century inscription. I think most of us are aware that they didn't have a time machine.
In fact the Hyksos connection to the Jews was invented by Josephus in the first book of Against Apion. To him anyone who refused to believe the Jews were the Hyksos who ruled Egypt for a century hated Jews and the refusal to believe his nonsense claim was proof of their hatred.
The Hyskos connection can stand on its own as a valid hypothesis, regardless of who said it first. Of course, it's just a hypothesis.
The believers' desired translation of the Tel Dan stele does not pass the giggle test for all the previous reasons and a rather obvious one.
The W in DWD is another big hint as V and W are only related fricative sounds (usually equivalent to F and V) in Germanic languages. In English and Russian V and W are unrelated sounds. So it only makes believer sense if DWD was a German.
Heh. Just heh... You're judging an ancient semitic inscription by the modern English version of that name? WTH? It's like denying Roman inscriptions about Julius Caesar on account of their writing it with an I instead of J. So it can't be the same Caesar, right?

I hate to break this to you buddy, but variants and translitaration of the same name can vary massively between languages and over time.
The fact is, that name is actually pronounced "Daud" or "Dawud" for both the ancient semitic populations and the Arabs as one of their descendants. Hence that letter being transliterated with a W. You don't need to be German for that. You just need to know WTH you're talking about.
The serpent is Apophis from Egypt.
1. Religions borrow from each other all the time. If you think that's big, check out how much they borrowed from the Akkadians. But, really, that's the kind of thing that happened in all religions. Not sure why you think it's important.
2. By that logic, just about any animal is connected to some Egyptian cult, just because they had a god for each animal. E.g., then by that logic the Easter Bunny is the Egyptian goddess Unut, the spirit wolf of the Innuit is obviously Wepwawet, etc. You'll need a stronger connection than just being also present in a culture that made gods in the shape of almost every single animal they knew of.