But that's what the Accords were about, Thunder. It was supposed to be a transfer of authority/security FROM Israel to the PA (which has happened a great deal, as is evidenced by the fact that Hamas runs day to day operations of Gaza, implements laws, and is responsible for its citizens where as Israel is chiefly responsible for the borders it shares with the city). It just so happens that Hamas has kind of retarded that process.
Nobody, not even Israel, is saying that the occupation is over in the West Bank -- or even in parts of the West Bank. So why would this transfer of authority -- which isn't complete -- be considered an end to the occuption in Gaza?
ETA: Mycroft is saying "the areas under autonomous control of the PA are not occupied..."
Yet here you are claiming the opposite...
Google Earth shows no such buffer zone.
What would it look like? Do you expect to see it painted white and blue?
For an occupation, Israel would have to have full control. They don't.
So you keep claiming. But the definition you quoted didn't say that. "Territory is considered occupied when it is actually placed under the authority of the hostile army."
Not to mention that Israel did have full control (or as close as possible) before it decided to give some up. It has not given up enough to satisfy anyone important.
You have failed completely to show that Israel occupies Gaza by any traditional meaning of the word.
The meaning 'as recognised by international law', obviously isn't good enough for you. Gaza's legal status is 'occupied' because those who determine such things say so.
No sweetheart, it's entirely your own definition.
Saying so doesn't make it so.
Israel does not excercise authority in Gaza. If it did I don't think Hamas could have parades and TV stations and radio stations and enact and enforce laws. Because Hamas is the authority in Gaza, not Israel.
Israel does exercise authority in Gaza, because if it didn't people wouldn't need to ask Israel's permission to use their land in the buffer zones. etc.
What part of Hague IV requires an international body to declare the beginning or end of an occupation?
When the text of Hague IV speaks up on its own, maybe then we can do away with international bodies.
Since you can't cite the UN saying Iraq was occupied 1991-2003, cite someone else.
And once again, you're making this up as you go along. This criteria of yours doesn't exist in international law.
Doesn't change the gulf between the two situations, thus making your comparison no good.
It's not a strawman. If the blockade ends Hamas gets a port with which to import weapons from their good friends in Iran and Syria. You may as well claim that even though you pushed your wife off the roof you never intended for her to hit the ground, therefore you are not guilty of murder.
This is insane. And absolutely nothing to do with the claims I have actually made.
Of course. If Israel stays they're oppressing the Palestinians. If they withdraw they're still oppressing the Palestinians. No matter what Israel does, it's the wrong thing. And Palestinians have no rsponsibility whatsoever for their plight.
Your inability to understand a simple paragraph undermines your claims to understand international law.
The strawmen continue to multiply.
I know exactly what your position is - you think Gaza should have a port and you really want people to think that doesn't mean you want Hamas to get weapons. Once again, it's like pushing your wife off a roof and saying you didn't mean to kill her because you didn't know she'd hit the ground and was just fine the last time you touched her. Who do you think you're fooling with this drivel?
You inability to guess what my position is undermines your claims to know what the state department REALLY believe when they say Gaza is occupied.