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Merged Theory links Newtonian/Quantum the amazing Frank Znidarsic

Does modeling the "crash" of a photon into an atom make sense?

None whatsoever, if you're viewing the photon and the atom as macroscopic objects. Why should it make sense? Modelling the interactions between photons and atoms is perfectly sensible, but it's a worthless terminology to use the word "crash" to describe it.

Does a collision of a wave into a standing wave (atom) produce something like a vibration that could be interpreted as a "phonon"?

No. A phonon is a collective excitation of atoms in a lattice, where they are subject to electrostatic interactions which act as a restorative force when their positions deviate from specific lattice sites. Phonons behave as quasi-particles, which can propagate indeterminate distances through a lattice. Using the same terminology to describe the effects of photon absorption by an atom is of no value, because the electrons are localised on the atom and hence any vibrations cannot propagate.

Dave
 
A friend, Ph.D. in physics, said if you regard the galaxy as a section of a sphere, the values come out right.
Another friend wasn't sure, if physicists take into account that huge rotating gravitational objects might develop magnetic fields that somehow produce the effect for which dark matter was invented.

Sorry. the measured magnetic fields are way too small.

I am sorry that you don't like neutrinos, they too are dark matter.
 
No. A phonon is a collective excitation of atoms in a lattice, where they are subject to electrostatic interactions which act as a restorative force when their positions deviate from specific lattice sites. Phonons behave as quasi-particles, which can propagate indeterminate distances through a lattice. Using the same terminology to describe the effects of photon absorption by an atom is of no value, because the electrons are localised on the atom and hence any vibrations cannot propagate.

I don't understand. Atoms are pinned into the lattice. Electrons are pinned to their orbits. This is just a battle over words.
Let's call it something else.
Now, photons are particles/waves (as either of them they can interact with other particles/waves). If a photon "loads" its energy into the atom, causing electrons to jump to higher orbitals... what is the exact cause of that? I don't understand, please elaborate.
 
Now what would the result be?

If the buckyball were purely a wave then every buckyball would produce an interference pattern on the screen. In fact, every buckyball produces one dot on the screen. It is the large collection of dots that reproduces the interference pattern.
 
I don't understand. Atoms are pinned into the lattice. Electrons are pinned to their orbits. This is just a battle over words.

No, it's not. Phonons are not atoms, but collective excitations of atoms. Think of it as waves moving along a string; they can start in one place, and move through the lattice to another place, and keep on going. They're like sound waves in a crystal; in fact, they are sound waves in a crystal. And it's that feature of phonons - that they can move long distances - that sets them apart from the motion of electrons in atoms.

Now, photons are particles/waves (as either of them they can interact with other particles/waves). If a photon "loads" its energy into the atom, causing electrons to jump to higher orbitals... what is the exact cause of that? I don't understand, please elaborate.

In the classical approximation, the oscillating field of the photon causes an oscillation of the electron, increasing its orbital velocity and leaving it with more energy. We know that's wrong, because orbital energies are observed to be quantised. In QM, we don't know the precise details of the process, but we know the starting conditions and the finishing conditions, and we can deduce rules by which we can work out the finishing conditions from the starting conditions. Again, why should we expect to know any more than that? It's not like we can "see" a photon; photons are the instruments we see with.

Dave
 
......really? I thought neutrinos had zero mass? How could they exert gravity?

No, neutrinos have been shown to have non-zero mass. The value isn't known exactly - we only know that it's extremely small, but not zero. There's some information to start from on the Wikipedia page on neutrinos. And, given that they have mass, they can (indeed, must) therefore exert a gravitational force.

Dave
 
In QM, we don't know the precise details of the process, but we know the starting conditions and the finishing conditions, and we can deduce rules by which we can work out the finishing conditions from the starting conditions. Again, why should we expect to know any more than that? It's not like we can "see" a photon; photons are the instruments we see with.

Dave

It's understood perfectly in QED. See for example the Jaynes-Cummings model. It's really very similar to the classical situation: the electric field couples to some polarized state, and if the frequency of the light is the same as the frequency of the atom transition (which is the same as saying the photon has the same energy as the excited state), then there is a large probability that the atom will go into the excited state.
 
No, it's not. Phonons are not atoms, but collective excitations of atoms. Think of it as waves moving along a string; they can start in one place, and move through the lattice to another place, and keep on going. They're like sound waves in a crystal; in fact, they are sound waves in a crystal. And it's that feature of phonons - that they can move long distances - that sets them apart from the motion of electrons in atoms.
In the classical approximation, the oscillating field of the photon causes an oscillation of the electron, increasing its orbital velocity and leaving it with more energy. We know that's wrong, because orbital energies are observed to be quantised. In QM, we don't know the precise details of the process, but we know the starting conditions and the finishing conditions, and we can deduce rules by which we can work out the finishing conditions from the starting conditions. Again, why should we expect to know any more than that? It's not like we can "see" a photon; photons are the instruments we see with.

Now that's what I call helpful!

Some new questions arise:

1.) Lattice oscillations are produced by .... mechanical energy, say bouncing crystals together like Newton's manager toy? Or are the atoms in the lattice oscillate under influence of .... electromagnetic waves?
2.) If the EM waves excite the atoms in a lattice, producing a propagating wave (which type of wave?), what is the "speed" of the wave? That is, how fast does the wave propagate? Which parameters influence this "speed of the phonon"? Are we able to calculate that speed?
3.) Why "approximation"? Why not exactly measurable? Let's leave that aside - if the electron is oscuillating under photonic influence, what type of oscillation would that be? Oscillations ARE waves. They must have a wavelength. If the wavelength of the photon is known, and the electron is also a wave (is it during transition?), these waves must interfere.
How would you calculate the interference?
4.) It seems FZ uses "phonon" as both lattice vibration and oscillation induced by a photon on the electron. Let's consider that valid for a moment and call it electronic phonon.
5.) You state it is unknown what exactly is going on during the transition. Therefore it must be legitimate to explore this further. This is what FZ claims to do. Maybe he's wrong. But it must be allowed to be questioned.
6.) In mathematics, you can think outside a system. That is what Gödel did, proving that by axioms alone you cannot prove certain sentences from within the system established by the axioms. But by proving that, he transcended the problem, proving, this is valid for ALL formal systems.
Physics is a formal system as well. It developes by expanding the theory to match "reality". But remember, a theory is not an axiom, although it seems to be treated as such.
But certainly a photon will not make you give up!

So lets discuss this, but Dave style please.
 
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Responding selectively here; others may want to comment on points I've omitted.

1.) Lattice oscillations are produced by .... mechanical energy, say bouncing crystals together like Newton's manager toy? Or are the atoms in the lattice oscillate under influence of .... electromagnetic waves?

These and anything else that dumps energy into the lattice. Typically, heat, which equates to mechanical energy at the atomic scale, and electromagnetic interactions.

2.) If the EM waves excite the atoms in a lattice, producing a propagating wave (which type of wave?), what is the "speed" of the wave? That is, how fast does the wave propagate? Which parameters influence this "speed of the phonon"? Are we able to calculate that speed?

It's a big subject, but yes, all this is knowable and measurable. It depends on the elastic constants of the lattice. For low energies, it's simply the speed of sound in the medium.

3.) Why "approximation"? Why not exactly measurable?

Because it's wrong, really. Assuming classical electrodynamics gives results that don't agree with experiments. That's why we need to use quantum mechanics, which give results that do.

4.) It seems FZ uses "phonon" as both lattice vibration and oscillation induced by a photon on the electron. Let's consider that valid for a moment and call it electronic phonon.

We can't consider it valid, because it isn't. Phonons propagate through a lattice, and are affected by the periodic nature of the lattice. A single atom isn't a lattice; it has no translational symmetry. The behaviour of an electron in an atom considered in isolation is fundamentally, qualitatively different from that of an excitation in a lattice.

5.) You state it is unknown what exactly is going on during the transition. Therefore it must be legitimate to explore this further. This is what FZ claims to do. Maybe he's wrong. But it must be allowed to be questioned.

No problem. I'm an applied solid state physicist, so I'm not too strong on QED, but as Dilb has pointed out there are models of the transition that give the right results. That makes them good models.

6.) In mathematics, you can think outside a system. That is what Gödel did, proving that by axioms alone you cannot prove certain sentences from within the system established by the axioms. But by proving that, he transcended the problem, proving, this is valid for ALL formal systems.
Physics is a formal system as well. It developes by expanding the theory to match "reality". But remember, a theory is not an axiom, although it seems to be treated as such.

We don't assess theories by how well they follow from the axioms that have already been established, nor do we assess them by how emotionally satisfying a portrayal they offer of phenomena. We assess them by how well they predict the results of experiments and the behaviour of systems. If FZ can produce a theory that predicts behaviour that other theories can't, it'll be valued. If it can't predict behaviour that other theories can, it won't.

Dave
 
If there's ONLY waves, which I prefer but cannot prove, there must be all kinds of waves, and certainly there must be vortices.How can you possibly predict the behavior of vortices at such a small scale?
Is "spin" a vortex?

Why do you assume this? What is your evidence for such "vortices" and how exactly do they fit into modern physical theories? Heck, what is your definition of a "vortex"?
 

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