Until they cut funding for it.
Evidence that this has happened or acknowledgment that it's pure conjecture. Which is it, sir?
In the meantime, and just to ensure you don't miss it:
1. Evidence of your claim regarding 1970s standards of clinical treatment in the UK?
2. Evidence of your claim that clinical outcomes in the UK are below US standards, including alternative measures to admittedly rough and ready IM and LE as suggested elsewhere?
Come on, should be a dawdle given your confident views.