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Gaza - A 5 Star Concentration Camp *****

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when it requires them to uproot existing residents, without the initial residents approval; then screw the occupiers.
Most, no, wait, make that all people without a homeland have a homeland that's occupied by foreigners. This is not unique to the Israelis. So yes, giving back territory requires you to "uproot" (:rolleyes:) some of the people who have taken up residence there.

germany is who isolated the jews and oppressed the jews during ww2, let germany be called israel.
Why:confused:?

when they maintain a concentration camp with 1.5 million souls uprooted from their homes; we call that borderline genocide and leading to a holocaust.

ie.... gaza............. the existing holocaust within mankind!
Making your fonts bigger does not make your hyperbole less riduclous.

While the palestinians never did a dam thing to the occupiers to come into their homes and take it by force...
While the Israelis, on the other hand, did what to provoke the neighbouring nations to invade them - several times over?
 
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ever looked in the mirror?


I suggest you read Mein Kampf. Even Hitler never made such a claim.

i haven't read that book.

but i do like some of the material i did read, while looking into it

“We use the term Jewish race merely for reasons of linguistic convenience, for in the real sense of the word, and from a genetic point of view, there is no Jewish race. [...] The Jewish race is above all a community of the spirit. Spiritual race is of a more solid and more durable kind than natural race.”


that was supposedly hitler and quoted in wiki

just like this part is

Mein Kampf has assumed a key place in the functionalism versus intentionalism debate. Intentionalists insist that the passage stating that if 12,000–15,000 Jews were gassed, then "the sacrifice of millions of soldiers would not have been in vain," proves quite clearly that Hitler had a master plan for the genocide of the Jewish people all along. Functionalists deny this assertion, noting that the passage does not call for the destruction of the entire Jewish people and note that although Mein Kampf is suffused with an extreme anti-Semitism, it is the only time in the entire book that Hitler ever explicitly refers to the murder of Jews. Given that Mein Kampf is 694 pages long, Functionalist historians have accused the Intentionalists of making too much out of one sentence.

Functionalist historians have argued that the memorandum written by Heinrich Himmler to Hitler on May 25, 1940, regarding the "Final Solution to the Jewish Question", whose proposals Hitler accepted, proves that there was no master plan for genocide which stemmed back to the 1920s


when i was younger, i remember a bunch of talk on that book but i had no interest in hitler.

still dont


this thread is about the concentratin camp GAZA and how sick it is, that people now a days, (like you) dont have a problem with it even existing.

hitler....... and germany, did ww2, not the palestinians.

ie.... palestinians DO NOT DESERVE THE HATE Of bigots!
 
Most, no, wait, make that all people without a homeland have a homeland that's occupied by foreigners. This is not unique to the Israelis. So yes, giving back territory requires you to "uproot" (:rolleyes:) some of the people who have taken up residence there.

that is your logic?

because germans are who uprooted the jews, not the palestinians.


You are confused because, you dont maintain a sense of compassion for others.

as far as you are concerned, if it is politically correct to accept even cruely, then so be it.

People like you are why, pity is not one of my observed traits within these threads.

Making your fonts bigger does not make your hyperbole less riduclous.



i have you showing what us what a hyperbole of rediculous is.

hence; your confusions!
 
ever looked in the mirror?
i haven't read that book.

So how do you know how and why the Germans all hated the Jews?


this thread is about the concentratin camp GAZA and how sick it is, that people now a days, (like you) dont have a problem with it even existing.

And here you are, lying some more.

You are a really weird person. Are you going to back up any of your claims or will you just keep on trolling?
 
that is your logic?
Try one more time. This time tell me what's actually wrong with my post.

because germans are who uprooted the jews
Yeah, they were living peacefully in Israel playing ball games and eating kosher food until the Nazi armies drove them out, tore down the temple, and built an Autobahn on the temple hill. The land was occupied by the Hitler Youth, who used it to practice desert warfare while eating nothing but Bratwurste and Sachertorte. Barbaric brutes, as they were.

...wait. What? :confused:.

You are confused because, you dont maintain a sense of compassion for others.

as far as you are concerned, if it is politically correct to accept even cruely, then so be it.

People like you are why, pity is not one of my observed traits within these threads.
[/personal attack]
 
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it should be remembered that one of the main reasons why Jews base our lineage on the mother, is because the Rabbis felt it would be cruel to say that the child of a Jewish mother who was raped by a Roman or other Gentile soldier, would not be considered a Jew. this suggests a lot of this was going on.

But this would mean that those children were still descended from Judeans through the mother. There is no evidence of which I am aware of large scale conversions to Judaism after the destruction of Judea. The only exception would be the Khazars, who were mostly wiped out by the Mongols and don't appear to have much relationship with modern Jews.

So, yes, most modern Jews are related to Israelites and Judeans who dwelled in the Levant from some time before 1200 BC through 586 BCE. At that point some Jews were exiled to Babylon and remained there even after Persian king Cyrus restored the Judean Kingdom, which then lasted in one form or another until 70 CE and the diaspora.

There is an historical connection between Jews and the Levant. It is obviously not as strong a connection as possessed by those who have lived there since 70 CE, but it is wrong to say there is no basis for Jews to see the area that was once Judea as a cultural homeland, in the same was that Irish-Americans see Ireland as a homeland, or Italian-Americans see Italy as a homeland.

And if for some reason Italian-Americans were suddenly persecuted in America and felt the need to flee to another land to make their own State, I would imagine that Italy would be on the top of their places to go, even if many Italian-Americans spoke no Italian and had not had a descendant born in Italy in centuries.

Which is not to say the creation of Israel at the expense of those currently living there was entirely justified. But it was not an irrational choice and it was not necessarily motivated solely by religion.
 
So you reject the DNA evidence?


there is DNA evidence that about half of all Ashkenazi Leviim and Cohaniim share a common ancestor, from somewhere in the Fertile Crescent.

what's that say about the rest of us?????

And honestly, I'd like to see evidence from non-Israeli geneticists. There is too much politics involved in the matter of Jewish ancestry linking back to Palestine.
 
there is DNA evidence that about half of all Ashkenazi Leviim and Cohaniim share a common ancestor, from somewhere in the Fertile Crescent.

what's that say about the rest of us?????
There's evidence that all Jewish people share a common heritage originating in the Levant.

And honestly, I'd like to see evidence from non-Israeli geneticists. There is too much politics involved in the matter of Jewish ancestry linking back to Palestine.
The work was published in the highly respected British journal Nature, deal with it or refute it on scientific grounds.

Note to all: Thunder's response will be science-free.
 
There's evidence that all Jewish people share a common heritage originating in the Levant.

I'd LOVE to see the evidence that ALL 14 million Jews around the world share a common heritage from the Levant. Please post it or provide a link to it.
 
um....its pretty easy to find.

Then I'm sure you'll have no problem offering evidence of your statement.

The statement in question is as follows: "we could be ... descended from European converts in the 3rd century AD"

Please show me that there is a significant population of "European converts" to Judaism in "3rd century AD", who would not thereafter have intermingled with the Jews who did come from Judea. After all, if someone converts to Judiasm and marries someone who descends form Judea, their children would descend from Judeans though the convert's spouse. For Jews not be able to trace a heritage to Judeans -- which was your point -- they would have to descend from converts who did not then intermingle with the population descended from Judea. That would require a large pool of Jewish converts who did not intermingle with Judean descendants.
 
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Then I'm sure you'll have no problem offering evidence of your statement.

honestly, I forgot my glasses, and its kinda hard for me to read big paragraphs right now. I'll have to do it when I get home.

but I will find it, I promise.
 
So what? We were discussing whether Jews have no connection to Judea. If 40% of Askenazi Jews don't have a matrilineal connection all it means is that somewhere along the line they had at least one mother who converted. But if any of the members on their father's side had a connection, they still descend from Judeans, regardless of the break in heritage on the maternal side.

Matrilineal is only of importance from a religious sense, but we were specifically discussing non-religious ancestral connections to Judea. The statement you made was that there could be Jews who lack that ancestry because of European converts in the 3rd century CE. That sentence only has any hope of making sense only if European conversions were of such a size that it is unlikely that converts would have mixed with Jews of Judean origin.

You appear to be improperly using a broken matrileneal connection as evidence that a person lacks any ancestry from Judea, and that is not a rational argument.

What your article shows is that at least 60% of Ashkenazi Jews have a genetic marker that is carried in mitochondrial DNA indicating a Levantine connection. But since that marker is only transmitted matrilineally, it is not evidence that the other 40% of Ashkenazi Jews lack a Levantine connection. All 40% of remaining Jews could have a Levantine connection through their patrilineal side.

In fact, it would be very hard to argue that modern Jews are not descendents of Judeans. People who converted to Judaism generally joined established Jewish communities, who would themselves be descended from Judeans. They would marry people with Judean ancestry and their children would thus have Judean ancestry. It would be very unlikely indeed to think that there is a sizeable group of Jewish converts (especially those who first converted over 1700 years ago!) who never had children with anybody with Judean ancestry.

The only group who could plausibly make that claim were the legendary Jewish Khazars who reportedly converted to Judaism en masse in the 9th century. However, even if this did happen (and the historical record is spotty at best), the Khazars were wiped out by the Mongols in the 13th century, and the survivors assimilated into the local population, probably becoming Muslims or Christians. Any Jewish survivors probably joined Jewish communities in Babylon or Europe, intermarrying with the local (Judean) communities, and having children that would thus have a Judean heritage.
 
ok. there is still ZERO evidence that ALL Jews are direct descendants of the ancient Judeans.

I know many Jews in this world, and I know of NONE who have taken part in any of these genetic studies.

and as I alluded to before, I find all of these current genetic studies which link Jews to Palestine, during highly charged political times in the Middle East, to be highly suspect.

the timing is just soooooooo convenient.
 
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