PixyMisa
Persnickety Insect
Experience can be considered as just another behaviour - in whcih case it is identical for identical software - or as the state or state progression of the software - in which case it is identical for identical software.I'm not disputing that the algorithm is platform-independent. I've just never heard that the algorithm is necessary and sufficient to determine all properties of subjective experience.
I think I'm just making a slightly weaker claim than you are--from a position of profound and possibly permanent ignorance of the qualitative details of another's subjective experience.
I guess I'm (possibly Sydney Shoemaker before me?) positing something like this:
Soft = software
Hard = hardware
Bhvr = conscious behavior (behavior that leads others to think an entity is conscious)
Exp = conscious experience (the private subjective "what it's like" for an entity)
Soft A + Hard A ==> Bhvr A + Exp A
Soft B + Hard A ==> Bhvr B + Exp B
Soft A + Hard B ==> Bhvr A + Exp C
Soft B + Hard B ==> Bhvr B + Exp D
In other words, identical software run on any hardware will always result in identical behavior. (Substrate independence claim from functionalism.)
If the software is functionally identical, experience is identical. Hardware is irrelevant.
How?The combination of software and hardware determines a possibly unique subjective experience.
That's why I keep asking - in various forms - the same question: What else can possibly determine it?It's not clear to me that subjective experience needs to be fully determined by software.
Sorry, not clear on that. What exactly entails epiphenomenalism?But--this does entail epiphenomenalism, which I intuitively object to, while not having a strong argument against.