Deeper than primes

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0 < x <

"observer = concluder = researcher", where in this expression "=" has magnitude of existence, and "observer","concluder","researcher" have x magnitude of existence.
How does that affect your definition regarding the relationship between the observer and the observed? As far as I remember, when the observer and the observed are identical, there can be no observation, which leads to the complete dismantling of the Russell paradox that can be also described by the case of the impossible barber. But despite your turbo-charged definitions, life needs to go on . . .

clear-mirror-shaving-man.jpg


So if x is the magnitude of existence, and x=5, for example, then Magnitude=5, which the Gillette designers denote as M5.

captionhandle_300x370.jpg


See? Some of your ideas can be actually implemented.
 
Good luck on getting solid definitions there Robin. It's taken a while just for me to get a definition for local/non-local, words typically not associated with math, let alone domain, which doronshadmi can't really define.

Let me show you:










There were more silly messages of doron's but he still hasn't defined "interacted". BTW: any tool that is used (like a weight scale) is an agent of the measurer.
:)

I suspected as much.

Perhaps we can coin a new term "mathematicky".
 
Your question is irrelevant because we are talking on the following case:

Doron that you simply don’t understand the relevance does not make the questions irrelevant. Because if you did understand the relevance of the questions I would not have to ask them and you would not be making your ridiculous claim that the “operations are non-distinct”



Let us do it without the claim about contradiction.

σ is an infinite cardinal.

μ is a cardinal.

σ > μ

In the case of μ=0: κ=σ, σ – 0 = σ + 0 = σ, which is trivial, because 0 is not a successor of any cardinality.

But we are talking about the case where μ > 0.

In that case κ=σ, σ – 0 = σ + 0 = σ, but then "-","+" operations are non-distinct, because we get the same result even if σ > μ AND μ > 0.

Again read the cited reference

Subtraction
If the axiom of choice holds and given an infinite cardinal σ and a cardinal μ, there will be a cardinal κ such that μ + κ = σ if and only if μ ≤ σ. It will be unique (and equal to σ) if and only if μ < σ.


Again what is the result of ∞ + 5
How about ∞ - 5

Again what is the result of 5 + 0
How about 5 – 0

Doron if you think that because two different operations can give you the same result that makes those operations “non-distinct”, then that is just your problem.



You do understand that it is irrelevant if we deal with cardinality (only absolute values) ?

Once again Doron the questions and the relevance were not and are not limited to just “cardinality (only absolute values)”


By you own assertions above since 5*1 and5/1 give the same results then you must also claim that ‘*’, ‘/’ “operations are non-distinct”. Or is it simply that you do not apply your criteria for determining “non-distinct” “operations” consitently?


Only in the case of Locality.

No Doron, in the case of, well, exclusion.
 
Robin said:
First of all - QM? What does that have to do with the case? This is mathematics.
You are talking about the particular branch of mathematics that deals with strict ids ,such that X can't be both X and its negation.

In this particular branch "not Sxx and Sxx" is a contradiction.

I was talking about the particular branch of mathematics that deals with non-strict ids ,such that X and its negation are in superposition.

In this particular branch "not Sxx and Sxx" is a superposition.

In other words, we are talking about "different branches of the same tree", where the branch of mathematics that deals with non-strict ids, does not cancel the branch of mathematics that deals with strict ids, and vice versa.
 
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The Man said:
Once again Doron the questions and the relevance were not and are not limited to just “cardinality (only absolute values)”
Not correct, because σ or μ are cardinals, as clearly seen in the cited reference:
Subtraction
If the axiom of choice holds and given an infinite cardinal σ and a cardinal μ, there will be a cardinal κ such that μ + κ = σ if and only if μ ≤ σ. It will be unique (and equal to σ) if and only if μ < σ.

Furthermore, 0 is additive identity and 1 is multiplicative identity, and since we clearly talking about Cardinality and Subtraction, then:
The Man said:
By you own assertions above since 5*1 and5/1 give the same results then you must also claim that ‘*’, ‘/’ “operations are non-distinct”.
1) multiplicative identity is irrelevant to our discussion, because we are talking about Subtraction.

2) Since we are talking only about Cardinality, then the fact that subtraction is not commutative, is irrelevant to our discussion.

By (1) and (2) "+","-" operations are non-distinct.
 
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You are talking about the particular branch of mathematics that deals with strict ids ,such that X can't be both X and its negation.

In this particular branch "not Sxx and Sxx" is a contradiction.

I was talking about the particular branch of mathematics that deals with non-strict ids ,such that X and its negation are in superposition.

In this particular branch "not Sxx and Sxx" is a superposition.

In other words, we are talking about "different branches of the same tree", where the branch of mathematics that deals with non-strict ids, does not cancel the branch of mathematics that deals with strict ids, and vice versa.
But the idea of a proof must sit below any "branch" of mathematics. It is not in any branch - it is the roots of the tree.

As I said - no proof - no mathematics. I don't get what you don't get about that.

If "x and not x" is not a contradiction then there can obviously be no indirect proof. Can you see that?

You have completely scrapped the idea of mathematical logic.

So you are not a different branch of the same tree.

You are a different tree altogether.

You will need to start from scratch.

Do you have a rigorous definition of "superposition" in the mathematical sense?

Do you have theorems and proofs in this "branch"?
 
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Stop blaming others for your failures. You can't define things, so just admit it and move on.


How about, a non context-dependent framework, which deals with real complexity (including real superposition, real uncertainty, real redundancy, infinite interpolation, infinite extrapolation), which has real universal tautology (because totalities are considered), which deals with magnitudes of existence, which deals with non-locality and locality, which uses non-local numbers, which is naturally free from Russell's paradox (because it is not limited to distinct things that share the same level of existence) and the garbage can of proper classes, which enables to enter the mathematician (his/her non-personal aspect) as a valid factor of the mathematical research, which enables to deal with ethical challenges in terms of the survival and development of complex systems, etc ... etc.. ?

If you can produce something like that, it would be great. Let us know when you have something well-defined, non-contradictory to share. We'd all be very interested.
 
But the idea of a proof must sit below any "branch" of mathematics. It is not in any branch - it is the roots of the tree.

As I said - no proof - no mathematics. I don't get what you don't get about that.

If "x and not x" is not a contradiction then there can obviously be no indirect proof. Can you see that?

You have completely scrapped the idea of mathematical logic.

So you are not a different branch of the same tree.

You are a different tree altogether.

You will need to start from scratch.

Do you have a rigorous definition of "superposition" in the mathematical sense?

Do you have theorems and proofs in this "branch"?

Robin, direct proofs ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Direct_proof ) are not indirect proofs ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_by_contradiction ) so your conclusion that if there are no indirect proofs, then there are no proofs at all, is simply false.

Furthermore, according to constructive mathematics ~p is not necessarily the negation of p, so p AND ~p is not necessarily "p that is both true and false".

So, indirect proofs are not "the roots of the tree", and so are direct proofs or Constructive mathematics.

Also please do not ignore Qbits ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qubit ):
Bit versus qubit

A bit is the basic unit of computer information. Regardless of its physical realization, a bit is always understood to be either a 0 or a 1. An analogy to this is a light switch— with the off position representing 0 and the on position representing 1.

A qubit has some similarities to a classical bit, but is overall very different. Like a bit, a qubit can have two possible values—normally a 0 or a 1. The difference is that whereas a bit must be either 0 or 1, a qubit can be 0, 1, or a superposition of both.
 
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If you can produce something like that, it would be great. Let us know when you have something well-defined, non-contradictory to share. We'd all be very interested.
jsfisher,

a non context-dependent framework, which deals with real complexity (including real superposition, real uncertainty, real redundancy, infinite interpolation, infinite extrapolation), which has real universal tautology (because totalities are considered), which deals with magnitudes of existence, which deals with non-locality and locality, which uses non-local numbers, which is naturally free from Russell's paradox (because it is not limited to distinct things that share the same level of existence) and the garbage can of proper classes, which enables to enter the mathematician (his/her non-personal aspect) as a valid factor of the mathematical research, which enables to deal with ethical challenges in terms of the survival and development of complex systems, etc ... etc..

can't be shared with persons that their reasoning is limited to "distinct things that share the same level of existence", which is exactly your reasoning.
 
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Robin, direct proofs ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Direct_proof ) are not indirect proofs ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_by_contradiction ) so your conclusion that if there are no indirect proofs, then there are no proofs at all, is simply false.
I didn't say that indirect proofs were the only methods of inference, but they have been at the heart of mathematics for 2,300 years and as I pointed out, to remove it would involve the rewiting of mathematics.

Removing contradictions has implications to the rest of logic as well as you should be able to see.

For example what happens to "x implies y and not y implies not x"?

You can't just change one bit of logic and expect the rest to be the same.
Furthermore, according to constructive mathematics ~p is not necessarily the negation of p, so p AND ~p is not necessarily "p that is both true and false".
"not (p and not p)" is a tautology in constructive mathematics. (Not that I am an expert on the subject - but it is "p or not p" that is rejected as a tautology in constructive maths)

Also "p and not p" does not mean "p that is both true and false" in any system of logic. It is an expression that has a truth value.
So, indirect proofs are not "the roots of the tree", and so are direct proofs or Constructive mathematics.
There is an error in this sentence which makes it hard to parse. Did you mean "neither are"?

You could say that constructive mathematics is at the root of the tree to, dealing as it does with metamathematics.

In any case, proofs definitely are fundamental to mathematics.
Also please do not ignore Qbits ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qubit ):
What do they have to do with the price of tea?

In any case, you did not answer my question. Are there theorems and proofs in your mathematics?
 
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jsfisher,

...

can't be shared with persons that their reasoning is limited to "distinct things that share the same level of existence", which is exactly your reasoning.
Wasn't there a cloth like that? Couldn't be seen by people with limited reasoning?

Can't remember exactly - somthing to do with an Emperor.
 
I didn't say that indirect proofs were the only methods of inference, ...
You did say that:
And if RAA is not a tautology then clearly indirect proof is not an inference method.

Do I really have to explain the implication of that?

I don't need to tell you that proofs are fundamental to mathematics - coming well before such niceties as you are proposing.

No proofs, no mathematics.
In other words, you conclude that if there are no indirect proofs, then there is no proof at all, which is a false conclusion.

Robin said:
In any case, proofs definitely are fundamental to mathematics.
Again, you clearly talked about proofs only in terms of indirect proofs.

Robin said:
Removing contradictions has implications to the rest of logic as well as you should be able to see.

For example what happens to "x implies y and not y implies not x"?

It is not "p that is both true and false" in any system of logic, so your point is invalid.
If "x implies y and not y implies not x" is equivalent to "p AND ~p" where ~p is the negation of p, then you are still using indirect proofs, which have no impact on direct proofs. Furthermore, in constructive mathematics, ~p is not necessarily the negation of p, and in this case "p AND ~p" is not necessarily a contradiction,

Robin said:
But "P AND NOT P" is a contradiction in constructive mathematics.
Only in the case that ~p is the negation of p, but this is not the only alternative about p and ~p, since by constructive mathematics ~p is not necessarily the negation of p.

Robin said:
There is an error in this sentence which makes it hard to parse. Did you mean "neither are"?
No one of the considered frameworks (direct proofs, indirect proofs, proofs of constructive mathematics, where ~p is not necessarily the negation of p) is the whole mathematical science.

Robin said:
You could say that constructive mathematics is at the root of the tree to, dealing as it does with metamathematics.
I can't say it, because constructive mathematics, is one of the branches of this science.

Robin said:
What do they have to do with the price of tea?
Nothing. Do you think that mathematics deals only with problems that are related to "the price of Tea" ( you ignored Qbits http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qubit )?

Robin said:
In any case, you did not answer my question. Are there theorems and proofs in your mathematics?
Let us start by 0 < x < .

It is derive from the concept of "magnitude of existence" as follows:

Let us use the empty set in order to define the concept "magnitude of existence".

Definition A: That has no successor has "the maximal magnitude of existence".

Definition B: That has no predecessor has "the minimal magnitude of existence".

The current scientific method, which was developed since the 17th century, states that the researcher must be omitted form the research environment, in order to avoid results that are influenced by subjective tendencies of the researcher. It must be stressed that Aristotle determined 4 causes that sands at the basis of any existing thing, which are:

1) The material cause (from what material a given thing is made?).

2) The efficient cause (what are the natural forces that change a given thing?)

3) The formal cause (what is the "blueprint" in once mind that has an influence on a given thing?)

4) The final cause (what is the final goal in once mind, that has an influence on a given thing?)

The current scientific method uses only causes (1) and (2), in order to avoid any researcher's subjective influence on the result.

A question: Is it possible to return the researcher to the research environment and also avoid his\her subjective influence of the results?

My answer: I think that it is can be done if the "researcher" returns to the research environment as a general concept.

Let us use definitions A and B in order to demonstrate this notion.

{} describes the "researcher" in terms of definition A where what is between {} is the "researched" in terms of definition B (known also as "emptiness").

The outer "{""}" of {{}} describes the "researcher" in terms of definition A, where the inner "{""}" of {{}} describes the "researched" in terms of the model of the "researcher" that his\her "researched" subject is "emptiness".

At {{}} case "the magnitude of existence" of the "researched" is greater than "emptiness" (it has a predecessor) and smaller than the "researcher" (it has a successor).

Whether a non-empty collection is finite or infinite, it has both predecessor ("emptiness") AND successor ("researcher").

Anything that has both predecessor ("emptiness") AND successor ("researcher"), can't be reduced into "emptiness" AND can't be extended into "researcher". Because of this reason any given infinite collection can't have an exact Magnitude that is described by Cardinality.

If we symbolize these notions then: 0 < x < , where represents the "the maximal magnitude of existence"("researcher") , 0 represents "the minimal magnitude of existence" ("emptiness"), and x represents "the magnitude of existence" that is > "emptiness" AND < "researcher" (any non-empty collection, whether it is finite or infinite).

By carefully research "the magnitude of existence" of an infinite collection, it is concluded that the universal quantifier "for all" has no meaning, because the strict "magnitude of existence" of any given infinite collection can't be satisfied ( x < ). On the contrary, the universal quantifier "for all" has a meaning in the case of finite collections, because given any member of a finite collection it is defined as its final element, which in turn provides the strict "magnitude of existence" that is described by a strict Cardinality (A finite collection does not converge and does not diverge, which is a property that enables to determine its strict cardinality).

In other words, if x is the cardinality of an infinite collection then x < prevents its strict value.

Since the cardinality of any given infinite collection is non-strict, then the 1-1 correspondence technique can't be used to determine any meaningful thing about the cardinality of such collections.

Furthermore, the Contor's diagonal upon decimal representation of irrational numbers, actually proves that it is impossible to determine the strict value of x if x is related to an infinite collection.

Moreover, the ability to define a 1-1 correspondence between the natural numbers and a proper subset of them is a direct result of the impossibility to define the strict cardinality of an infinite collection.

I wish to add that Russell's paradox does not hold in this case since that has cardinality can't be identical to any of its members, because any given member has at most x "magnitude of existence" and x < .

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

The minimal observation is the result of the linkage among the total "magnitudes of existence", such that the "researcher" observes "emptiness".

A non-minimal observation, is an observation of "non-emptiness", where a non-minimal observation can be finite or infinite.

Some examples:

{} is the minimal observation ("that has no successor" observes "that has no predecessor").

{1} is an example of a finite observation.

{1,2,3,4,5,…} is an example of an infinite observation.

Code:
{
 {1,2,3,4,…}
  ↕ ↕ ↕ ↕     is an observation between an infinite observed thing 
 {2,4,6,8,…}  and its infinite proper subset.
}

etc … etc … infinitely many observations, where "that has no successor" (the non-personal aspect of the concept of "researcher", which is notated by the outer "{""}", is always presented.

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

0 < x <

X is a placeholder for 0, x or



Definition C: "That has no predecessor is not a successor".

Example: X+0=X

Details:

5+0=5, where 0 is not a successor.

|infinite collection|+0=|infinite collection|, where 0 is not a successor.

+0=, where 0 is not a successor.



Definition D: "That has no successor is not a predecessor".

Example: -X=

Details:

-5=, where is not a predecessor.

-|infinite collection|=, where is not a predecessor.

-=, where is not a predecessor.
 
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Not correct, because σ or μ are cardinals, as clearly seen in the cited reference:

Doron “the cited reference” did not ask the questions, I did and those questions did not refer to “σ or μ”.

If you can not answer the questions asked, then simply say so.


Furthermore, 0 is additive identity and 1 is multiplicative identity, and since we clearly talking about Cardinality and Subtraction, then:

Doron what we are talking about (that evidently you just don’t want to talk about, though you just want to keep asserting it) is your ridiculous claim that “"+","-" operations are non-distinct”.

1) multiplicative identity is irrelevant to our discussion, because we are talking about Subtraction.

It is indeed relevant as again we are talking about your ridiculous assertion that “"-","+" operations are non-distinct, because we get the same result”. Multiplication and division by one also give “the same result”. So you must consider them “non-distinct” as well or is it simply that you do not apply your criteria for determining “non-distinct” “operations” consistently?

Also two of the questions asked were specifically about subtraction and again if you simply can not answer the questions asked, then just say so.


2) Since we are talking only about Cardinality, then the fact that subtraction is not commutative, is irrelevant to our discussion.

Once again it is entirely relevant to our discussion of your ridiculous claim that “"+","-" operations are non-distinct” and subtraction not being commutative while addition is, just happens to be one of they ways in which they are in fact, well, “distinct”.



By (1) and (2) "+","-" operations are non-distinct.

Once again if you think “"+","-" operations are non-distinct” then that is simply you problem.


Once again Doron try actually reading your own cited reference.

( http://books.google.com/books?id=JdU...action&f=false )


Here is a quote from the top of page 87

Although addition and multiplication are always possible with infinite cardinals, subtraction and division no longer give definite results and connot therefore be employed as they are employed in elementary arithmetic.

Even your own cited reference clearly refutes your claim that “"+","-" operations are non-distinct” even when “talking only about Cardinality”.
 
You did say that:

Robin said:
And if RAA is not a tautology then clearly indirect proof is not an inference method.

Do I really have to explain the implication of that?

I don't need to tell you that proofs are fundamental to mathematics - coming well before such niceties as you are proposing.

No proofs, no mathematics.

In other words, you conclude that if there are no indirect proofs, then there is no proof at all, which is a false conclusion.
That is not what I was saying. I was saying that proofs were fundamental to mathematics.
If "x implies y and not y implies not x" is equivalent to "p AND ~p" where ~p is the negation of p, then you are still using indirect proofs, which have no impact on direct proofs. Furthermore, in constructive mathematics, ~p is not necessarily the negation of p, and in this case "p AND ~p" is not necessarily a contradiction,
What is this "direct proof" that you are talking about?

The tautology I posted was modus tollens and it is different from indirect proof.

Maybe we should use the other term Reductio ad absurdum to avoid confusion.

So in classical logic the rules of inference are modus ponens, modus tollens, reductio ad absurdum, proof by cases and mathematical induction.

So will you agree that your change rules out RAA and MT? And MT is really just a manipulation of MP.

Mathematical induction relies on other rules of inference to prove the first term and that one term implies the next, so we have pretty much ruled out MI. That leaves proof by cases, which usually relies on other rules of inference too.

In FOL we can bypass the classical rules of inference and go for simpler methods - for example by checking if the conjunction of the argument and the negation of the conclusion is consistent. but again, that does not work if you remove the idea of "not (p and not p)" as a tautology.

So there you have it. You can't just arbitrariliy change one part of mathematics and hope that the rest is unchanged - that makes no sense.

You have to demonstrate that you still have a valid method of proof.
Nothing. Do you think that mathematics deals only with problems that are related to "the price of Tea" ( you ignored Qbits http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qubit )?
I am not ignoring it. I know all about Qbits. What is the relevance?
Robin said:
In any case, you did not answer my question. Are there theorems and proofs in your mathematics?

Let us start by 0 < x < .
snip....
Are you suggesting that what you have posted here contains theorems or proofs?
 
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The tautology I posted was modus tollens and it is different from indirect proof.

MT.

If P, then Q.
Not Q.
Therefore, not P.

MT can be converted to MP.

What is this "direct proof" that you are talking about?

For example, MP.

If P, then Q.
P.
Therefore, Q.

There is also UI, for example:

"All ants are insects. Koko is an ant. Therefore Koko is an insect."

Please see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Direct_proof .

I am not ignoring it. I know all about Qbits. What is the relevance?

In Qbits p AND ~p is a superposition.
 
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Furthermore, according to constructive mathematics ~p is not necessarily the negation of p, so p AND ~p is not necessarily "p that is both true and false".


Nope, sorry, you have already rejected constructivism. Constructivism accepts the "for all" construct, whereas you, Doron, do not.
 
Nope, sorry, you have already rejected constructivism. Constructivism accepts the "for all" construct, whereas you, Doron, do not.
To be fair, he was only using Constructivism as an example of where negation is handled differently.
 
jsfisher,
...<snip of gibberish>...

can't be shared with persons that their reasoning is limited to "distinct things that share the same level of existence", which is exactly your reasoning.

Yet again you (1) blame others for your failings and (2) make up stuff (that is, lie) to help cover your tracks.

Come on, any result will do. Not something you simply assert or claim without proof, but a real result. You must have one, no?
 
MT.

If P, then Q.
Not Q.
Therefore, not P.

MT can be converted to MP.
Which fact I already pointed out above. Didn't you read it?

Why do you think that helps your case?
For example, MP.

If P, then Q.
P.
Therefore, Q.
So, earlier you claimed that MT was an indirect proof. You agree with me that MT is just a manipulation of MP and then you give MP as an example of direct proof.

They are all inter-related, you can't just change one part and expect everything else to be the same.
There is also UI, for example:
Which you have also rejected elsewhere.
In Qbits p AND ~p is a superposition.
Yes, I know. Again - what is the relevance to a discussion on mathematical logic?

You do know that the physics of a Qubit is described using "flatland" mathematics don't you?
 
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