There's some circular logic there. We don't ask about men being forced to perform a sex act because we
somehow already know that it's rare?
Women can respond physically to rape and
some even orgasm. Why do you automatically assume that the same cannot happen for men? If a man is forced to allow himself to be fellated, do you believe he will not respond? The reality is that a man can be
physically aroused and raped. Do you understand that men sometimes have erections
during a prostate exam? I would say that all victims are subject to feeling guilt about their bodies responding.
What about male prostitutes that are expected to give rather than receive? Do you think these young men are sexually aroused by some fat, hairy old man with bad breath?
I wouldn't say that I have been raped, but I have managed to have sex with a woman when I did not want to have sex and was suffering a very bad migraine headache (we were trying to conceive). Once I achieved an erection the stimulation kept me from losing it despite my poor attitude towards it and terrible pain in my head. I was physically but not emotionally aroused. Hell, gay men manage to have sex with their wives for years.
Even if a man is not aroused, do you understand that there are devices that can be used to create and/or maintain an erection? A vacuum pump and restrictive device is all that's needed (not that it's necessarily needed at all). The simple reality is that the body can
respond physically to stimulation.
A woman in Russia was convicted of
raping 10 men using drugs, so that avenue (for lack of a better term) for rape is open to both genders. Drunk men can be taken advantage of just like drunk women.
But as I noted several times, "force" is undefined. Many people believe that "consent" given due to psychological and emotional blackmail is not consent at all, and a
woman who has sex under those conditions would be considered as being raped. Do you not think the same thing is applicable to men? Can we not be coerced? Emotionally blackmailed?
What about a man who is stimulated in his sleep? If he wakes up with a woman on top of him, is he not being raped in the same way as a woman who wakes up with a man inside her? It happens. What about a man who doesn't want to go "all the way" and the woman coerces him or physically forces herself on him? If a man does that, we call it rape, but we don't even ask men if a woman has ever done that to him?
The majority of rape victims are minors. We consider it statutory rape when the partner is an adult (laws vary, of course). A 12 year old boy presumably cannot consent, can he? Yet the NVAWS doesn't even ask about it.
The NVAWS was severely flawed in gathering information about male victims of rape. I also believe it was flawed in capturing data for female victims. I'm not sure at all whether rapes committed through coercion or drugs/alcohol were included. I believe they should have been.
I also believe our language needs to differentiate the various "types" of rapes to give all of us a better picture of what actually happens. I'm not saying any one "type" is worse or better than another. However, the circumstances surrounding (say) stranger abductions, threats of violence, consensual sex acts gone bad, waking up to being violated, being violated while willingly intoxicated, being violated while unwillingly intoxicated, coercion through emotional blackmail, and statutory rape have about as many differences as they do similarities. Each "type" represents different situations and different relationships (if any) with the perpetrator, and we do ourselves a disservice by lumping them all together. The result is articles like the one referenced in the OP where the woman seems preoccupied with the danger of strangers and seemingly oblivious to the far greater dangers she faces in a relationship.