The sentence I bolded shows you have a bad habit of stating something as a fact that is simply a skeptic theory. You lose credibility when you make these statements as if they are facts when there are other explanations.
For example the one below I wrote about this issue months ago. I thought it was much ado about nothing then and I think it is much ado about nothing now.
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4618777#post4618777
And there you are wrong.
Among competing explanations of equal predictive values, one should privilege the most likely one as factual with the caveat that it, like all human knowledge, is provisional until new contradictory evidences appear.
For example, Koch, when he injected
Mycobacterium tuberculosis in mice, caused them to die of tuberculosis and his conclusions was that the bacterium was the causative agent of the disease, still stands to this day.
However, one could imagine the disease being caused by a totally unrelated factor and the fact that, in Koch's experiment, only the treatment group was afflicted, only to be a coincidence.
Both explanation works equally well at explaining the facts, but one his likely and simple, the other one circumvoluted and unlikely.
In the case of Matthew's passage, we have:
-A formula of repetition that is common in Hebrew poesy.
-A passage that is unique to Matthew and can not be found in the older gospel of Mark that Matthew used quite a lot for material.
-A scene that does not make sense, why ride two animals at the same time? How, one is clearly younger and thus smaller?
At this point one can draw two hypothesis of equally good explanation value:
A) Matthew misunderstood
Zechariah 9 (read it in context, it's about Israel's victory on its enemies at the time of zechariah not about the travellings of a wandering preacher) and made up events to match it, the same way he made up events to match the birth in Bethlehem.
B) Jesus really did do his little piece of rodeos. Mark and Luke did not report it because they suck at their job.
Clearly, the first one is much more likely (especially if you start include magic).
ETA And how well something matches prophecy is a matter of opinion. If you don't think something matches prophecy well, well that is your opinion, it is not fact. Some Skeptics think Isaiah chapter 53 doesn't prophesize Jesus' life. Whereas Jewish lawyer Jay Sekulow was converted to Christianity because of the chapter. And has devoted his life and career to the gospel.
No, it's not, a matter of opinion.
You can make a list of statements contained in a prophecy and count how many are specific and how many applies to the event you are attempting to fit. You can also tally up how many statements are in direct contradiction with the events that are so-called "prophesied", even a single contradiction should, normally, sink the claim at the text being prophetic and, if the events is only "predicted" by a few, very general statements, then it does not fit very well (I have been some "messianic prophecies" applied with better accuracy to Harry Potter and Luke Skywalker than to Jesus himself, they are just that vague).
Regarding
Isaiah7, in particular, Tim Callahan
made a post on the subject.
But, to summarize, at some point around 732 BCE, Ahaz, king of Judah, was seeing his kingdom, and his city of Jerusalem, threatened by the alliance of two powerful enemies.
Isaiah then came to reassure him:
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The [almah] will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
He will eat curds and honey when he knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right.
But before the boy knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right, the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste.
The LORD will bring on you and on your people and on the house of your father a time unlike any since Ephraim broke away from Judah—he will bring the king of Assyria.
So, we have a series of statement.
The first one may be of a virgin birth. There is controversy as to how to
translate the word
almah , indeed, many traductions do not use the term 'virgin' but instead "young woman" or similar terms.
The second one gives us the name of the son: Immanuel.
Problem, nowhere in the gospels is Jesus referred to as Immanuel. The only references we can find to Jesus/Immanuels are direct allusions to this "prophecy".
Then, the boy will 'eat curd and honey',
problem, this suggest a rather comfy childhood, not one that you'd expect from the family of a modest carpenter.
He will know 'when to reject right and wrong',
problem, Jesus being divine, would know that instantly from the beginning, there is no story of him having to learn right and wrong, this statement could only apply to a human child not a man-God.
Before the child gets to the age of reason, the kings enemies of Ahaz will be defeated, please note that this is supposed to happen while Ahaz is still alive ("The LORD will bring on
you and on your people"). Ahaz died in 716/715 BCE,
that's more than seven centuries too early.
So, really, the only elements that is not plainly in direct contradiction with the Jesus myth is the virgin birth.
But as we can see, the translation of the word is
very contested, indeed, even the King James version
translate it differently depending of the passage.
Of course, that argument is moot if Jesus is not born of a virgin. The
virgin birth is not referenced to in Mark and seems a later addition to the Jesus mythos, maybe one more example of Matthew making stuff up to fit the prophecies, or maybe the narrative was forged to answer some nasty rumors that, we know, were running around when the narrative was first written down.
Indeed, the virgin birth is part of a narrative that includes the flight to Egypt and that a) has no external support b) is unlikely (9 month pregnant woman going through the hardship of a long trip, census organization that makes no sense) c) is not supported by the archaeological and documentary evidences you'd expect (for the slaughter of the innocents, the census). The whole narrative is very highly suspicious.
On the other hand, the use of the word Ah'Almah, suggest that the young woman in question was present during the conversation (
this young woman).
Scholars have suggested that the whole prediction would be about Ahaz and a son of his, and then, the whole prophecy, suddenly, makes quite a lot of sense.
So, yes, the value of the passage as a messianic prophecy may have been enough to convince Mr. Sekulow, but, it seems to me, that it only speaks about Mr. Sekulow's poor judgement on the matter...