That's a reasonably short way of showing that you know you were wrong and think that making a snide joke is the best way to try to deflect attention from the fact that you were wrong.
But isn't there a saying that most good jokes have at their core an uncomfortable truth?
All I said was the depression of 1815-1821, at 6 years, was the longest in US history. It was.
Based on what definition of depression? The NBER's? But in the links I supplied earlier, I already showed that NBER's definitions are sometimes tailored to make democrats look good (or not as bad as they really were) and make republicans look bad (or not as good as they really were). And I showed that the NBER is primarily composed of democrats … some of whom are now closely tied to the Obama camp … which might explain why.
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
On the contrary, in 1934 alone he passed Gold Reserve Act, created the Federal Farm Mortgage Corporation, created the Export-Import Bank, passed the Crop Loan Act, passed the Civil Works Emergency Relief Act, passed the Farm Relief Act, established the Securities Exchange Commission, created the Commodity Credit Corporation, passed the Federal Farm Bankruptcy Act, created the Federal Surplus Relief Corporation, passed the Cotton Control Act.
And this proves that the economy wasn't growing, how exactly?
I didn't suggest it proves the economy wasn't growing. Nice strawman. But remind us again, Yoink, why FDR needed these programs in the first place, if as you (and the NBER) claim, the depression was already over during this time? Do you think economies don't grow without such help after recessions and depressions? Well, if so I have to tell you that the history of the economy before 1934 (and even since) proves you wrong.
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
Then in 1935 he passed the Emergency Appropriations Relief Act which created the Works Progress Administration, created the National Youth Administration, passed the Social Security Act, passed the Banking Act, passed the Public Utility Holding Company Act, passed the Revenue Act (Wealth Tax), passed the Federal Power Act, Passed the Motor Carrier Act. All when you claim "the depression was over".
Not when I claim it. When the NBER and all competent economic historians claim it.
Ok, so tell us why such massive intervention was needed when the NBER and *all competent*

rolleyes

economic historians claim the depression was over? Aren't the NBER and those *competent* economic historians aware of the fact that this country has recovered just fine after numerous recessions and depressions … recovered without such *stimulus* and even recovered after cuts in government spending? In fact, recovered at a faster pace than we recovered from the Great Depression or are now recovering from the current recession.
And just because the Depression was over doesn't mean that economic distress had ended. Hence the usefulness of FDR's programs.
But why weren't such programs needed in the downturns before that? And how do you know they were "useful" when the recovery with FDRs programs was actually more lackluster and drawn out than in so many previous cases where no such programs were applied? Where even spending cuts were applied instead. Your logic makes absolutely no sense, Yoink. Even FDRs Secretary of the Treasury gave FDR's programs a failing grade at job and economic growth. And he was in a position to know.
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
Never mind the fact that in January of 1937, before the start of your *second depression* (which *officially* is May 1937), FDR said "I see one-third of a nation ill-housed, ill-clad, ill-nourished."
So "May 1937" isn't part of 1937?
January 1937 is not May 1937 according to the NBER.
If you acknowledge that it was "officially" 1937 you're acknowledging that you're "officially" wrong, aren't you?
Not at all. I'm simply suggesting the NBER is Stuck On Stupid, which seems to be a common democrat affliction.
Who said anything about them being "unrelated"?
Oh … so now they are related? Related how?
And as your "officially" above proves, you know that they're using the term loosely for a period of extended economic distress and not technically for the actual durations of economic contraction.
Yet, as I showed, the "economic contraction" of more than 10% of GDP (which most sources define as characterizing a depression) lasted more than a decade. At the time the NBER said the depression was over, the GDP was down almost 30% from what it was at the start of the crash. And it didn't recover to even the same level for over 7 years. Seems technical enough to me.
And you really aren't going to like this, but the NBER admits they don't actually have an "formal" (meaning official) definition of depression and that they don't have an "formal" duration for the Great Depression. Regardless of what that table on their website suggests. Here, direct from the NBER FAQ:
http://www.nber.org/cycles/recessions_faq.html
The term depression is often used to refer to a particularly severe period of economic weakness. Some economists use it to refer only to the portion of these periods when economic activity is declining. The more common use, however, also encompasses the time until economic activity has returned to close to normal levels. … snip … If the term Great Depression is used to mean the period of exceptional decline in economic activity, it refers to the period from August 1929 to March 1933. If it is used to also include the period until economic activity had returned to approximately normal levels, most economists would judge that it ended sometime in 1940 or 1941. However, just as the NBER does not define the term depression or identify depressions, there is no formal NBER definition or dating of the Great Depression.
Did you comprehend the sentence "The more common use, however, also encompasses the time until economic activity has returned to close to normal levels"? Do you comprehend the last sentence? It proves you are wrong in claiming that the NBER "officially" dates the duration of the Great Depression … regardless of what it's website shows. They state that they have no "formal" definition of depression and no "formal" dating of the Great Depression. So that being the case, it's probably best that we go by what is (according to the NBER) the most common definition of depression we can find … the one that most everyone else seems to follow (as I showed earlier) … the one that the NBER admits results in a period from 1929 to "sometime in 1940 or 1941". In other words, a duration of more than a decade.
Game. Set. Match.
So first you claim that it would be ludicrous for FDR to enact his New Deal if the Depression had ended, and then you claim that NBER is trying to make FDR look good by claiming that the Depression ended in '33? You're not much troubled by contradiction, are you?
There is no contradiction in that assertion
at all. It is in fact ludicrous for FDR to have enacted his New Deal if the depression was over, and claiming the depression ended in only 4 years because of FDR does indeed bogusly cast FDR's policies in a better light than they deserve.
Who says they were unrelated?
So you'd rather focus on this than contest my "the NBER is biased" assertion? Fine. Game. Set. Match.
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
Even if you believe that, did you ever stop to wonder why we experienced a double dip depression in the 1930s, but not in any earlier depression?
What a bizarre, stupid and uninformed claim.
I'm sorry. Did I miss some other double-dip depression in our history?
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
And isn't it curious that economists are worrying about a double dip in the current recession.
Actually, they're mostly not.
http://au.biz.yahoo.com/100228/31/2bj11.html "February 28, 2010 … One of the OECD's leading economists says there is a strong chance that the world's leading economies could quickly slide back into recession. The deputy director of the OECD's financial and enterprise affairs, Dr Adrian Blundell-Wignall, has told ABC1's Inside Business program that the threat of a double dip recession remained because problems in the banking system have not been solved."
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
What makes this one different than so many others before it … which didn't double dip?
Except they did. Over and over again.
http://www.nuwireinvestor.com/articles/why-risk-of-a-double-dip-recession-is-low-54096.aspx
Deutsche Bank AG (NYSE: DB) economists – who conducted the research – reviewed U.S. economic history all the way back to the 1850s, and found that double-dip recessions are exceedingly rare: There have only been three episodes in which the economy has fallen back into recession within a year of a previous recession ending. And that’s out of 33 recessions that have taken place since 1854.
What was that you told me? "Perhaps you should try actually reading some economic history before you post next time."
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
And what is the definition of a depression anyway … besides being a "sustained economic downturn"? Many sources define it as a GDP down by 10%. Well if that's the case, then if the GDP in 1929 right before the crash was 100%, then the GDP in 1933 (when you claim the depression was over) was about 71%. And GDP didn't return to 90% of the 1929 figure until mid 1936. So by that definition, it seems to me the first depression lasted almost 7 years. And if you look at it in terms of Per Capita GDP, the picture is even worse. Per Capita GDP didn't recover to it's former level until 1940 making the depression 10 years long. And if you look at the trend line of Per Capita GDP over time (
http://www.bmacewen.com/blog/images/...US18702004.jpg ), you can see that the economy didn't recover from the Great Depression until mid 1945 when it finally reached the point it probably would have been at had there been no depression.
Yes! And if I define it as "years with 8s in them" then 1928 was a depression! There is no widely agreed upon technical definition of a "depression." So I'm just going to stick with the NBER's rigorous data on periods of economic contraction and expansion, thank you.
Like I said. Game. Set. Match. (see above)
Of course, if we apply *your* definition, the 1810s-20s depression is still longer than the Great Depression.
Actually, no. You can't reliably say how much the GDP shrank or grew, year by year, back in the early 1800s. Which is why charts like this,
http://www.efficientfrontier.com/ef/102/gdp.gif , show no details during that time period. All we can use to gauge the severity of downturns at that time are general descriptions of what happened. Which is why there is some confusion as to whether the downturn in 1837 was a recession or a depression. But, as I showed, the vast majority of people label it a depression, not a recession, which is why there are vastly more internet hits under "1837 depression" than "1837 recession".
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
Of course, your 1933 view of things also ignores unemployment. Odd, considering that in FDR's First Inaugural Address in March of 1933, he stated (just like Obama has stated) that "our greatest primary task is to put people to work." Even during that period when you claim the depression was over, unemployment only dropped below 15% for a couple of months. And then it went right back up. Roosevelt's own Secretary of the Treasury, Henry Morgenthau, 8 years after the start of the New Deal, wrote the following: "We have tried spending money. We are spending more than we have ever spent before and it does not work. I want to see this country prosperous. I want to see people get a job. I want to see people get enough to eat. We have never made good on our promises. ... I say after eight years of this administration we have just as much unemployment as when we started .... and an enormous debt to boot!". Obviously, he didn't think the Great Depression was over. The Brookings Institute (a left-leaning organization even back then) published a 900 page report on the impact of the New Deal's National Recovery Administration and concluded that "on the whole it retarded recovery." Government stimulus doesn't work.
Wow. Can you get any more irrelevant to the actual argument at hand?
Wow. Can you get any more desperate to avoid discussing the details about what actually happened in the 1930s and what actually constitutes a depression.
http://economics.about.com/cs/businesscycles/a/depressions.htm
There is an old joke among economists that states:
A recession is when your neighbor loses his job.
A depression is when you lose your job.
http://www.huffingtonpost.com/2009/03/29/how-a-modern-depression-m_n_180541.html
How A Modern Depression Might Look
Wall Street Journal
3/29/09
… snip ...
There is no consensus definition for "depression." Harvard University economist Robert Barro defines it as a decline in per-person economic output or consumption of more than 10%, and puts the odds of a depression at about 20%. Many economic historians say the line between recession and depression is crossed when unemployment rises above 10% and stays there for several years.
Even by that definition, ALL of the 1930s was one big depression. Now do you see the relevance to the argument at hand?
Why would unemployment go up when the stimulus ends if the stimulus has, as you claimed above, no effect on employment?
I never said or suggested that. Not once. Are strawmen all you have left in this debate?
Once again I ask you to explain why the magical powers of the Free Market and Private Enterprise and rendered incapable of action by government stimulus?
Asked and already answered. But you weren't listening. But here … I'll try again … but you do have to do some reading.
http://pajamasmedia.com/blog/defending-the-free-market-an-interview-with-guy-sorman/ "Defending the Free Market: An Interview with Guy Sorman"
http://www.marketoracle.co.uk/Article14117.html "Government Deficit Spending Killing the U.S. Free Market Economy"
http://www.thenewamerican.com/index.php/economy/economics-mainmenu-44/1316 "Obama Needs to Learn 'Opportunity Cost'"
http://www.theatlantic.com/business...-why-government-stimulus-does-not-work/36466/ "Here's Why Government Stimulus Does Not Work"
http://www.heritage.org/research/budget/bg2208.cfm "Why Government Spending Does Not Stimulate Economic Growth"
http://faculty.chicagobooth.edu/john.cochrane/research/Papers/fiscal2.htm "Fiscal Stimulus, Fiscal Inflation, or Fiscal Fallacies?"
http://online.wsj.com/article/SB10001424052748704471504574440723298786310.html "Stimulus Spending Doesn't Work"
And I could go on and on … but will you actually read and absorb any of them? There is the million dollar question.
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
Did you ever look at the reasons for the economy starting to recover when FDR took over and then failing again in 1937? Did you ever stop to consider that the timing of the unemployment rate dropping from 25% to 14% (with GDP climbing) and then going back up to 19% (with GDP falling) might have had more to do with the Supreme Court striking down key elements of the New Deal legislation in July 1935 and January 1936 (in particular, the National Industrial Recovery Act (NIRA), which established the Public Works Administration (PWA) and the National Recovery Administration, the Agricultural Adjustment Act, and 11 of the 16 Alphabet Laws, which created various New Deal agencies). When that happened, the economy and stock market started improving. But FDR couldn't leave well enough alone. During 1936 and early 1937, he began packing the court with his own people, leading to reversals of the earlier Supreme Court decisions in the spring of 1937. And look what happened immediately after that? The Dow collapsed and the unemployment rate shot back up to 19%. And it was still over 17% in 1939, despite FDR increasing spending yet again and putting in place even more government regulations. … snip …
I'm really not interested in hashing out the tired question of whether or not FDR's New Deal was effective with someone as profoundly ignorant of economic history as you, BeAChooser.
Oh, you've certainly proven that in this thread.
There was a panic in 1837. There was an economic revival in 1838. There was a depression that followed (hey! "Double Dip"!!) from 1839-43.
Fine, but regardless of the details in the downturn, the response of the government at the time was to NOT massively interfere and yet, somehow, the economy still recovered within 5 years. Unlike what happened in the 1930s when the government did massively interfere.
I think the stimulus money helped shorten the recession.
Based on what evidence? What computer model? What historical examples of similar situations? Or is it just your *belief*?
I never argued that Keynesian economics "is responsible of [sic] the less frequent and less severe recessions post Keynes."
You stated "Recessions were more frequent and more severe in the laissez-faire heyday of the C19th than they have been in the post-Keynesian era."
That certainly implies that Keynesian economics had something to do with there being less frequent and less severe recessions.
You claimed that state intervention invariably made recessions worse.
No, I claim that MASSIVE government intervention of the type tried in the 1930s and the type Obama is trying now invariably makes recessions/depressions worse. At least TRY to not distort what I claim. Else we might conclude that Strawman is your middle name.
Whether Keynesian policies are ultimately worthwhile is another, and more complex, question.
Backpedal, backpedal.
What is simply indisputable, however, is that there is no clear cut historical evidence that stimulative policies on the part of the government have produced, historically, longer or more severe recessions than occurred under more laissez-faire regimes.
I believe I've provided ample evidence you are wrong.
Are you seriously trying to argue that the claim that this latest recession was an unusually severe and dangerous one was something that originated with Obama?
I'm promoting the fact that at the time Obama claimed this downturn was the worst since the Great Depression, it wasn't. He was lying. Again, at least TRY to not alter my stated views.
One thing I do know, though, is that if the economy is doing well at the end of Obama's term you'll be in here saying that it was the "Bush recovery" finally getting under way, and that it only happened dispite Obama's policies and not because of them.
Oh I doubt Bush will be mentioned by me. He was part of the problem too.
Why not compare Obama at this stage of his presidency to Reagan at the same stage? Want to know whose growth figures were better?
Tell you what, let's look at what each administration's growth figures were/are at the same time in their respective recession cycle (since election years are such an arbitrary thing). What was the GDP growth rate in the first 2 quarters after the current recession supposedly ended (although NBER hasn't yet declared it *officially* over)? 3.5% (3rd quarter) and 5.7% (4th quarter)? Want to guess what the growth rate was in the first two months after the first phase of the 1980-82 recession? 8.4% Then the economy dipped again but when it again started to recover it saw growth rates of, as I've noted previously, 5.1%, 9.3%, 8.1%, 8.5% and 8% in the five quarters that followed. While even the optimists in the Obama administration are predicting about 2% growth in the quarters to come. I really can't believe you are trying to claim Obama outdid Reagan. That's almost pathological in its delusion.
So if high unemployment is likely to persist, that's an argument for less job-related stimulus. Huh?
You really aren't listening, are you. There is no point in repeating what I've already stated several times, if you'd rather employ strawmen and dishonest renditions of economic *history* as your sole debate arguments. Huh, indeed.
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
What happens when the stimulus funding ends, Yoink? Can you think that far into the future? Seems that states like California are finding out, right now. And by the way, I hear that a million people will soon be working for the census. Sure, that's going to make Obama's unemployment numbers look good. But how long will those jobs last?
And what is your point? Are you trying to make some argument that California's lost jobs are a result of the stimulus?
Again, are strawmen your only argument? Is distorting what I actually say the only tactic you have left in this debate?
Originally Posted by BeAChooser
Yeah. Where it started. Just like Carter. And where's it going to be at the end of Obama's first term? Dare you look that far into the future?
Neither you nor I know.
LOL! So you completely discount the predictions of the Obama team? The whole stimulus boondoggle has been justified on the basis of those predictions … and now, suddenly, you want to simply ignore them?
This is so desperate it's actually funny.
Indeed it is.
So we decide whether or not the stimulus included tax breaks on the basis of polls, do we?
Again, a strawman. That seems to be all you have now. I didn't say the stimulus contained no tax breaks. Sure … it did …
for some. But then it turned right around and increased taxes on many others (the ones they consider too rich). And democrats (and RINOS) throughout the country are also busy shifting federal taxes to *fees* and other more local taxes. Most important, however, the stimulus levied a tax on future generations … one that they don't even get a chance to vote on or complain about. That's not legend, that's fact that even the most basic economics book would confirm. Since even Obama's own people aren't predicting we will grow our way out of this massive new debt load, your only option will soon be to either force repayment of those new debts (by taxes) or inflate the money supply to the point the amount owed is worthless. Either way, the American public will lose. Game. Set. Match.
I lean more and more to thinking that you're a liberal troll, BeAChooser
This conversation (I hesitate to call it a debate anymore) gets only gets more and more bizarre.
