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Evidence for why we know the New Testament writers told the truth.

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Discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5093485#post5093485

Discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=2659155#post2659155

Although there are bits and bobs of discussion about this, the best summary of this in all its forms is here:

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/moral-arguments-god/

Discussed (ad nauseum) here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4984792#post4984792

Discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5042421#post5042421

Discussion on the 9 non-Christian sources for the life of Christ (ignoring the 31 Christian sources as it is using the NT as evidence for the NT, yellow flag, 15 yard penalty, repeat 3rd down):

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=3279037#post3279037

Ignoring the bit about Caesar as being a meaningless tu quoque.

Well, this is the closest thing to being a fact (at least the bit about Nero). Of course, most of the credit can go to Paul who, as we all know, never met Jesus in person. At best, he had some sort of visionary experience. I would say this point is more evidence that Paul was convincing than what he believed had any basis in truth. Of course, many people have tried to use the spread of Christianity as an argument of its truth, but that rarely ends well, as can be seen here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?t=94853&page=3

Refuted here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4705438#post4705438

And here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4708185#post4708185

And here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4720381#post4720381

Partially discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5124142#post5124142

More discussion here, with much more detail about any archeological support of any biblical story:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4997467#post4997467

Discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4664470#post4664470


The same questions are repeated because these arguments have all been refuted, and just like a Weeble, they keep coming back up again.

And most interestingly, none of these "facts" have much to do with the "evidence" laid out in the OP. Of course, those were dealt with pretty much on page 1.
:D!

Could everyone reply this way to DOC's posts from here on, please? Would bring the threads to a halt pretty quickly. Again, :D.
 
Shouldn't it be "Evidence for how..." not "Evidence for why..."?

Or simply "Evidence That the New Testament Writers Told the Truth," but considering the singular lack of said evidence, it seems a bit pointless to quibble over the awkwardness of the title now.
 
Originally Posted by DOC:

Oxford professor Thomas Arnold's statement regarding the evidence of Christ and the Resurrection and how he considered them to have more historical evidence than any other fact in history up to that point.



You are at least consistent, This is factual statement about his OPINION regarding this topic. Besides, he died in 1900 we have garnered a lot more archeological information as well as uncovered more manuscripts in the last 110 years. As it is an opinion, one made more than 110 years ago, it does not support your opening post.

Yes it is the opinion of an Oxford Scholar and the author of the 3 volume "History of Rome".

And you don't say what recent archaeological and historical evidence makes his opinion any less valuable today.

And to this date I have never seen any archaeological evidence that disproves the bible. But there is a lot that supports it.

And Pax and Hoku do the same thing -- criticizing older quotes just because they are old without giving any evidence to support why.

As John Wooden has said, "the problem with new books is they keep us from reading the old ones."
 
Posted by DOC

Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.


Waterman said:
Hmmm, citing a guy who has been dead since 1853 (157 years) and yes you are making a factual statement regarding his OPINION on the matter. As this boils down to an opinion is does not support your opening post.

More of the if it's not recent its probably not right thinking.

And actually if divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses it does increase the likelihood the NT writers were telling the truth since some of their accounts seem on the surface to differ. But as many websites point out, everything that appears not to be similar on the surface like the one angel and two angel accounts are not actually conflicting and a logical explanation can be given for what seems at first glance to be differing accounts. I have never seen one seeming inconsistency in the Gospel accounts that can't be logically explained. I've already given explanations earlier in the thread for the one and two angel accounts at the tomb of Christ.
 
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Originally Posted by DOC:


All this time and you still can't figure out the quote function? How do we know that you're really, truly quoting this 'DOC' character?


Oxford professor Thomas Arnold's statement regarding the evidence of Christ and the Resurrection and how he considered them to have more historical evidence than any other fact in history up to that point.


That's not a sentence, and that's the only thing saving it from being a logical fallacy.


Yes it is the opinion of an Oxford Scholar and the author of the 3 volume "History of Rome".


That is a logical fallacy. Marginal improvement noted.


And you don't say what recent archaeological and historical evidence makes his opinion any less valuable today.


Brief Summary:

All of it.​

Lengthy Synopsis:

All of it.​


And to this date I have never seen any archaeological evidence that disproves the bible.


You can't not know that this is the logical fallacy of 'Argument from Incredulity' and your use of it is worthless except as a demonstration of your blatant dishonesty.


. . . But there is a lot that supports it.


Then why do you continue to refuse to present it?


And Pax and Hoku do the same thing -- criticizing older quotes just because they are old without giving any evidence to support why.


You lied then, you're lying now. What difference does it make which posts are used to demonstrate this apalling habit of yours.


As John Wooden has said, "the problem with new books is they keep us from reading the old ones."


Yes, but have a wild stab at figuring out whom it is out of all of the participants in this thread that suffers terminally from this affliction.


Hint: You.
 
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Posted by DOC


No naughtypooword, Sherlock.


Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.


James Tiberius Kirk said that peace with the Klingons would never be achieved. If he can be wrong, anyone can.


More of the if it's not recent its probably not right thinking.


More of the same old gibberish.


And actually if divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses it does increase the likelihood the NT writers were telling the truth since some of their accounts seem on the surface to differ. But as many websites point out, everything that appears not to be similar on the surface like the one angel and two angel accounts are not actually conflicting and a logical explanation can be given for what seems at first glance to be differing accounts. I have never seen one seeming inconsistency in the Gospel accounts that can't be logically explained. I've already given explanations earlier in the thread for the one and two angel accounts at the tomb of Christ.


Piffle.
 
DOC, your lame, pathetic, tired and unsupportable claims that you've already explained this or that, given evidence for such-and-such, and demonstrated some unutterable nonsense have made your posts the laughing stock of the entire Forum. That you are unaware of this is the best part of the joke.

You couldn't get any more laughs if you just posted Monty Python clips. Why are you so adamant about posting in a Forum that regards every word you post with the utter contempt they so richly deserve?
 
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Originally Posted by DOC:

Oxford professor Thomas Arnold's statement regarding the evidence of Christ and the Resurrection and how he considered them to have more historical evidence than any other fact in history up to that point.

Yes it is the opinion of an Oxford Scholar and the author of the 3 volume "History of Rome".

So you agree that this is his opinion. My assertion is that as AN OPINION it is irrelevant as evidence. This is the same reasoning I used when discussing Ramsey AND Ross.

And you don't say what recent archaeological and historical evidence makes his opinion any less valuable today.

And to this date I have never seen any archaeological evidence that disproves the bible. But there is a lot that supports it.

First of all you haven’t presented the evidence that he used to arrive at that conclusion so we don’t yet know if what he based it on has been refuted or supported. Second, no one claims that every statement in the bible is false. The bible is a big book that spans centuries, some of the information can be confirmed by geography and other historical texts in regard to the some of the events and places. However as a very large book written over the ages by people in a era steeped in myth. We have to be careful about accepting the entirety of the mundane and especially the non-mundane events as factual.

And Pax and Hoku do the same thing -- criticizing older quotes just because they are old without giving any evidence to support why.

As John Wooden has said, "the problem with new books is they keep us from reading the old ones."

If you will reread my remarks you will note that I commented that it was old that I dismissed it because it was an opinion.

I merely mention the age of the quote particularly because the methods used and available to the field of archeology has advanced by leaps and bounds since them. Additional MS have been found see the Dead Sea Scrolls. Also, based on what I have read here, many scholars have taken a harder look at the History (and evolution) of the Bible in ways that were unthinkable a hundred years ago. The age of a quote or passage by itself is not a reason to dismiss it. However it must be taken in the context of what was known at the time. The teachings of Plato from 2400 year ago can still have some relevance in the realm of Philosophy, much can be learned from Euclid’s 2300 year old geometry. Heck even the basic engineering equations I use in my job were developed in the mid 1800s. However I don’t want to my doctor to be trained based on the medical texts from even 100 years ago.

What people are asking for is not some authority figure’s opinion about the evidence but what is the evidence on which he based that opinion. If you provide that then we can get into a real discussion and avoid the argument form authority.

Why did he hold that opinion?

What Evidence did he consider?

What was his reasoning?

You have only presented his conclusion. That won’t fly here.

If the thread was:
Famous People that had the opinion that the bible was true. No one would be arguing with you. Well perhaps a few if you decided to include Thomas Jefferson in that list.
 
Or simply "Evidence That the New Testament Writers Told the Truth," but considering the singular lack of said evidence, it seems a bit pointless to quibble over the awkwardness of the title now.
I just figured that it would be nice to come to an agreement on SOMETHING. Even if it is a quibble.
 
Posted by DOC

Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.
Appeal to authority is still a stupid argument.

you know DOC, this thread may need to be changed to
Evidence for why we know the bible isn't anything other than an odd collection of unsubstantiated beliefs.



Yes, faithful believers faithfully believe that faithful belief.
The consensus of scholars is somewhat later - no real scholar thinks it was written c.50AD

But IF it was written that early -
WHY did no CHRISTIAN show knowledge of it until mid 2nd century?

Consider these Christian books with approx. dates :

60s - Hebrews - NO mention of Gospel(s)

80s - 1 John - NO mention of Gospel(s)
80s - James - NO mention of Gospel(s)

90s - Ephesians - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - 2 Thess. - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - 1 Peter - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - 1 Clement - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - Revelation - NO mention of Gospel(s)

100s - Didakhe - NO mention of Gospel(s)
100s - Jude - NO mention of Gospel(s)

110s - Barnabas - NO mention of Gospel(s)
120s - 2,3 John - NO mention of Gospel(s)
120s - Apoc.Peter - NO mention of Gospel(s)
120s - SecretJames - NO mention of Gospel(s)
120s - Preaching.Peter - NO mention of Gospel(s)

130s - 2 Peter - NO mention of Gospel(s)
130s - Pastorals - NO mention of Gospel(s)
130s - Hermas - NO mention of Gospel(s)
130s - Polycarp - NO mention of Gospel(s)


The first 2 DOZEN books of Christianity say NOTHING about the Gospels.

Finally in mid 2nd century they become known, as Aristrides told us, which you ignored.

The evidence is clear - the Gospels were UNKNOWN, even to Christians, until about mid 2nd century.



K.

Gday,




The GOSPELS themselves were completely unknown in the 1st century.

But, in the 2nd century we start to see some references to written Gospels - WITHOUT author's names. The names were only attached in late 2nd C., probably by Irenaeus.



Apology of Aristides, 138-161CE :

And it is said that God came down from heaven, and from a Hebrew virgin assumed and clothed himself with flesh; and the Son of God lived in a daughter of man. This is taught in the gospel, as it is called, which a short time was preached among them; and you also if you will read therein, may perceive the power which belongs to it.

This is obvious evidence of a written work which is specifically named "The Gospel" - but no name is given.

Furthermore, Aristides says this SINGULAR un-named Gospel was fairly NEW in the period 138-161 - clear evidence of the lateness of the Gospels, and the lateness of late naming.



Justin Martyr's 1st Apology, 150-160CE :

Ch. 66 : For the apostles, in the memoirs composed by them, which are called Gospels...


Justin Martyr's Dialogue with Trypho, 150-160CE, 3 references :

Ch. 100 : For I have showed already that Christ is called both Jacob and Israel; and I have proved that it is not in the blessing of Joseph and Judah alone that what relates to Him was proclaimed mysteriously, but also in the Gospel it is written that He said: 'All things are delivered unto me by My Father;' and, 'No man knoweth the Father but the Son; nor the Son but the Father, and they to whom the Son will reveal Him.'

This is all clear and obvious evidence of written works called Gospels - but no names given, even though Justin explicitly tells us what they were named ("which are called Gospels".) If Justin knew of any author's names he would CERTAINLY have given them.



The Acts of Peter, 150-200CE :

And Peter entered into the dining-hall and saw that the Gospel was being read, and he rolled up the book and said: Ye men that believe and hope in Christ, learn in what manner the holy Scripture of our Lord ought to be declared: whereof we by his grace wrote that which we could receive, though yet it appear unto you feeble, yet according to our power, even that which can be endured to be borne by (or instilled into) human flesh.

This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.



The Treatise on the Resurrection, 170-200CE, 1 reference :

What, then, is the resurrection? It is always the disclosure of those who have risen. For if you remember reading in the Gospel that Elijah appeared and Moses with him, do not think the resurrection is an illusion.

This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.



Hegesippus Fragments, c. 170CE :

With show of reason could it be said that Symeon was one of those who actually saw and heard the Lord, on the ground of his great age, and also because the Scripture of the Gospels makes mention of Mary the daughter of Clopas, who, as our narrative has shown already, was his father.

This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.


It's clear that the Gospels were UN-NAMED until late 2nd century.



K.

All of these "facts", most of which have been refuted, don't even support your premise. But just for fun, here we go:




Discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5093485#post5093485




Discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=2659155#post2659155




Although there are bits and bobs of discussion about this, the best summary of this in all its forms is here:

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/moral-arguments-god/




Discussed (ad nauseum) here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4984792#post4984792




Discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5042421#post5042421




Discussion on the 9 non-Christian sources for the life of Christ (ignoring the 31 Christian sources as it is using the NT as evidence for the NT, yellow flag, 15 yard penalty, repeat 3rd down):

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=3279037#post3279037

Ignoring the bit about Caesar as being a meaningless tu quoque.




Well, this is the closest thing to being a fact (at least the bit about Nero). Of course, most of the credit can go to Paul who, as we all know, never met Jesus in person. At best, he had some sort of visionary experience. I would say this point is more evidence that Paul was convincing than what he believed had any basis in truth. Of course, many people have tried to use the spread of Christianity as an argument of its truth, but that rarely ends well, as can be seen here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?t=94853&page=3




Refuted here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4705438#post4705438

And here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4708185#post4708185

And here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4720381#post4720381




Partially discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5124142#post5124142

More discussion here, with much more detail about any archeological support of any biblical story:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4997467#post4997467




Discussed here:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4664470#post4664470




The same questions are repeated because these arguments have all been refuted, and just like a Weeble, they keep coming back up again.

And most interestingly, none of these "facts" have much to do with the "evidence" laid out in the OP. Of course, those were dealt with pretty much on page 1.

You've got a lot of points to address..
 
Posted by DOC

Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.



More of the if it's not recent its probably not right thinking.

If you read my statement more carefully you will see that while I note the approximate age of the quote I dismissed it because it was an opinion. Again I will asked those hard questions that you seem to be missing.

Why did he hold that opinion?

What Evidence did he consider?

What was his reasoning?

You have only presented his conclusion.

BTW – I am not a lawyer, but I would much rather be tried in a 21st century court room than an 19th century one. I believe that I might get a fairer trial. Perhaps a lawyer could address advanced in the legal system since then.


And actually if divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses it does increase the likelihood the NT writers were telling the truth since some of their accounts seem on the surface to differ. But as many websites point out, everything that appears not to be similar on the surface like the one angel and two angel accounts are not actually conflicting and a logical explanation can be given for what seems at first glance to be differing accounts. I have never seen one seeming inconsistency in the Gospel accounts that can't be logically explained. I've already given explanations earlier in the thread for the one and two angel accounts at the tomb of Christ.

Actually divergent accounts are normal for stories told by oral tradition especially retellings by those that were not eyewitnesses. It does increases the likelihood the NT writers were recording the stories that they heard since some of their accounts differ. But as it has been pointed out, the accounts differ in sufficient detail which would indicate multiple oral histories with diverging paths from what seems at first glance to be the same account. I have never seen one inconsistency in the Gospel accounts that can't be contorted beyond all logic by an apologist. You've already be given these explanations earlier in the thread yet fail to address them adequately.
 
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Simon Greenleaf has surfaced (resurfaced) in the discussion and I thought I would look into what I could learn.

All Quotes from Wikipedia
Re: Simon Green Leaf
Greenleaf is an important figure in the development of that Christian school of thought known as legal or juridical apologetics. <snip> He is distinguished as one who applied the canons of the ancient document rule to establish the authenticity of the gospel accounts, as well as cross-examination principles in assessing the testimony of those who bore witness to the crucifixion and resurrection of Christ.

There is more on him there than that but this was relevant to the point at hand. I had never heard of the ancient document rule and thought that this sounded interesting. This is sounding suspiciously like ‘because it is old it is true.’

Re: Ancient Document Rule
An ancient document, in the law of evidence, refers to both a means of authentication for a piece of documentary evidence, and an exception to the hearsay rule.

I could see where this would apply in certain legal documents where the signatories have all passed away.

Authentication
With respect to authentication, an "ancient document" is one that may be deemed authentic without a witness to attest to the circumstances of its creation because its age suggests that it is unlikely to have been falsified in anticipation of the litigation in which it is introduced.

Hmm... this is a head scratcher… it seems to be saying that because they couldn’t know how it was going to be used today they wouldn’t have written it to support the case. However I don’t know that the NT meets this test. When it was assembled it was with the expressed idea to be the foundation of the Church and is still being used for that today. This is not some new application it still being used as it was intended to by the drafters.

Also I note they use the word authentic not true. I don’t know the legal distinctions there.

Under the American Federal Rules of Evidence ("FRE"), a document is deemed authentic if it is:

at least twenty years old;
in a condition that makes it free from suspicion concerning its authenticity; and
found in a place where such a writing was likely to be kept.
Many states have similar rules, but may limit the application of the doctrine to specific kinds of documents such as dispositive instruments (primarily conveyances, deeds, and wills), and may require the documents to be even older.

By admitting an ancient document into evidence, it is presumed only that the document is what it purports to be, but there are no presumptions about the truth of the document's contents. A jury can still decide that the author of the document was lying or mistaken when the author wrote it.

Yea! There are some limitations based on the ‘AND’ it has to meet all three!
20 years old. CHECK
Free of Suspicion regarding authenticity. Ooh big problem there, questions exist regarding authorship as well as transcription errors / edits. This is one area that Greenleaf may have failed to consider.
Found in appropriate place. More problems, we have no clue as to where the disparate documents were found that were assembled into the Bible.

The use of this rule is often limited property transaction, deeds and wills. The Bible does not meet this criteria

Based on my understanding of this information is that the legal thinking has advanced some since Greenleaf arrived at his conclusion. The use of the Ancient Document Rule that he used as one of his founding principals does not appear to apply to the Bible with the current thinking.

Therefore his opinion on the matter doesn’t count as fact because it is opinion AND it is outdated.
 
Simon Greenleaf has surfaced (resurfaced) in the discussion and I thought I would look into what I could learn.

All Quotes from Wikipedia
Re: Simon Green Leaf


There is more on him there than that but this was relevant to the point at hand. I had never heard of the ancient document rule and thought that this sounded interesting. This is sounding suspiciously like ‘because it is old it is true.’

Re: Ancient Document Rule


I could see where this would apply in certain legal documents where the signatories have all passed away.



Hmm... this is a head scratcher… it seems to be saying that because they couldn’t know how it was going to be used today they wouldn’t have written it to support the case. However I don’t know that the NT meets this test. When it was assembled it was with the expressed idea to be the foundation of the Church and is still being used for that today. This is not some new application it still being used as it was intended to by the drafters.

Also I note they use the word authentic not true. I don’t know the legal distinctions there.



Yea! There are some limitations based on the ‘AND’ it has to meet all three!
20 years old. CHECK
Free of Suspicion regarding authenticity. Ooh big problem there, questions exist regarding authorship as well as transcription errors / edits. This is one area that Greenleaf may have failed to consider.
Found in appropriate place. More problems, we have no clue as to where the disparate documents were found that were assembled into the Bible.

The use of this rule is often limited property transaction, deeds and wills. The Bible does not meet this criteria

Based on my understanding of this information is that the legal thinking has advanced some since Greenleaf arrived at his conclusion. The use of the Ancient Document Rule that he used as one of his founding principals does not appear to apply to the Bible with the current thinking.

Therefore his opinion on the matter doesn’t count as fact because it is opinion AND it is outdated.

Well Done!
 
Originally Posted by DOC:

Yes it is the opinion of an Oxford Scholar and the author of the 3 volume "History of Rome".

And you don't say what recent archaeological and historical evidence makes his opinion any less valuable today.

And to this date I have never seen any archaeological evidence that disproves the bible. But there is a lot that supports it.

Well, you haven't been looking very hard, have you?

Sure, that's a bit tricky as, in many case, you are asking us to prove a negative people leave record for event that did happen, they do not record the absence of one.
For example, we can not actually disprove that the census story is bogus, we do not have writings saying: 'And on this year we definitively did not conduct a census', that would be silly.
We do not have Josephus recording, 'And Herod did not actually have all the male babies murdered as it will be claimed in the future'.

In this case, we have, at best, the absence of the evidence that we would expect, we did not find record of the census, we did not find any comment about it and the method proposed in the Biblical account does not make sense and is totally different from any other recorded census practices. Also, we actually have actual record of a census in the region later on, one that makes sense and that we can be confident happened, what would be the need to conduct such a costly endeavour once more, if they had just gone through one? Even the modern US don't go through the troubles of organizing census so often? And wouldn't have people commented on such a waste of efforts?

Similarly, we don't have mass graves in Bethlehem, we don't have record of people being shocked at the barbaric display and the Romans, even after deposing Herod, never thought that story could be useful propaganda material "look at what the previous leaders did, aren't you better under a civilized Roman rule?".


Nonetheless, we do have, in some cases, events that are related in the Bible that we have evidences did not happen.
The rapid conquest of Canaan is disproved by the continuous occupations of cities at the time. Similarly, the idea of one big unified kingdom in David's time has been, in my understanding, pretty much rejected (by the way, if somebody more knowledgeable could go and fix the Wiki entry, it'd be nice).

But you won't hear about that from Geisler and Ross, at best, they are avoiding the subject, at worst they are lying and cherry-picking the evidences to reach their dearly held positions. It is, once again, argument from (willing and hotly defended) ignorance.
This and this links do evoque the subject.



And Pax and Hoku do the same thing -- criticizing older quotes just because they are old without giving any evidence to support why.

As John Wooden has said, "the problem with new books is they keep us from reading the old ones."

Yeah... That doesn't work like that in research and academia.

If you results are good, people will use them and cite them, not only it will constitute an independent confirmation but it will most often allow to clarify and improve on them.
It's always good practice, when you are quoting an article to go back and read it yourself, but, for the reader, it is not necessary as each academic research is supposed to contain a thorough and honest review of every relevant piece of information published on the subject. Sure, some bad apple always manage to squeeze through but, believe me, academia is pretty unforgiving.


Oxford professor Thomas Arnold's statement regarding the evidence of Christ and the Resurrection and how he considered them to have more historical evidence than any other fact in history up to that point.

Case in point, this can demonstrably be proven to be ********e of the infamousest degree.
Alexander the great lived before Jesus. We have contemporary accounts of him. We may have lost the writings of the actual witnesses but we have documented that unambiguously refer directly to them (arguably first hand accounts if the quote is direct enough, second hand at best). The gospels are said by you to be first and second hand accounts but this is, at best, very ambiguous, in fact, serious scholar consider it hearsay and oral traditions.
We also have coins and statue produced during the lifetime of Alexander and representing him. We have archaeological evidences of his battles and of the cities he founded. We have the arrival of Greek cultural elements, the establishment of two Greek dynasties and historical accounts surrounding these dynasties (including in the Bible, ironically enough) we even have the acquisition of geographical knowledge as cartographers followed Alexander's expedition beyond the boundaries of the known world...

If the Arnold could say something some monumentally wrong, he has the credibility of a Fox news anchor.


Nonetheless, if it was even remotely true and it absolutely is not, it would only mean that we'd have a case for Jesus' existence.
It wouldn't mean all the mythic bits were true. After all, myths accumulate around real figures all the times (Brian Dunning had a funny Skeptoid episode-quizz about that, I might have to link it later on)

After all, we know Alexander did exist, we do reject accounts of him visiting the Amazons or being the first person able to ride Bucephalos... (and I find the Gordian knot a bit suspicious myself).

If taken by the same rule (as we have said, it'd be very generous as the evidence for Jesus can never come even close to comparing to that for Alexander) it would mean accepting that Jesus might very well have been a historical person but all the miracle accounts and that for his resurrection were myths... which is pretty much the position of most modern scholars already, and that of one dead former-president you Doc are quite fond of quoting.


Posted by DOC
Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.

Well, good thing the judicial process has progressed then.
In reality, jut the fact that the Gospels account are unsigned would suffice to make it hearsay.
Even if the gospels were written by eyewitnesses (once again, serious scholars say they almost certainly were not) you can't prove it.
"Bob was a eyewitness. He is not testifying but I heard on a bar he once said that Richard was the murderer." would be laughed out of court.



And actually if divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses it does increase the likelihood the NT writers were telling the truth since some of their accounts seem on the surface to differ. But as many websites point out, everything that appears not to be similar on the surface like the one angel and two angel accounts are not actually conflicting and a logical explanation can be given for what seems at first glance to be differing accounts. I have never seen one seeming inconsistency in the Gospel accounts that can't be logically explained. I've already given explanations earlier in the thread for the one and two angel accounts at the tomb of Christ.

Regular eyewitnesses accounts may differ but the Bible is not supposed to be a regular eyewitnesses.
If it such an account, subject to mistakes and false memories, it would have the reliability of any documents transmitted through decades of oral transmission... not very high.
But Christian apologetist don't want that, they want the Bible to be the literal, inherent, inpired word of God. They want to have it both ways (hurm, Ted Hagar joke) and that simply does not work.

As for the gymnastic, 'there were two angels in all accounts it's just that one account just mentioned one and another said "boy" because the angel was male'... yeah, it's ridiculous apologetics (from apology: making-up excuses)
 
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