Akhenaten
Heretic Pharaoh
Shouldn't it be "Evidence for how..." not "Evidence for why..."?
Beelzebub's Beard! You're right!
Start the thread again everyone.
Shouldn't it be "Evidence for how..." not "Evidence for why..."?
Discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5093485#post5093485
Discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=2659155#post2659155
Although there are bits and bobs of discussion about this, the best summary of this in all its forms is here:
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/moral-arguments-god/
Discussed (ad nauseum) here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4984792#post4984792
Discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5042421#post5042421
Discussion on the 9 non-Christian sources for the life of Christ (ignoring the 31 Christian sources as it is using the NT as evidence for the NT, yellow flag, 15 yard penalty, repeat 3rd down):
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=3279037#post3279037
Ignoring the bit about Caesar as being a meaningless tu quoque.
Well, this is the closest thing to being a fact (at least the bit about Nero). Of course, most of the credit can go to Paul who, as we all know, never met Jesus in person. At best, he had some sort of visionary experience. I would say this point is more evidence that Paul was convincing than what he believed had any basis in truth. Of course, many people have tried to use the spread of Christianity as an argument of its truth, but that rarely ends well, as can be seen here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?t=94853&page=3
Refuted here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4705438#post4705438
And here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4708185#post4708185
And here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4720381#post4720381
Partially discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5124142#post5124142
More discussion here, with much more detail about any archeological support of any biblical story:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4997467#post4997467
Discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4664470#post4664470
The same questions are repeated because these arguments have all been refuted, and just like a Weeble, they keep coming back up again.
And most interestingly, none of these "facts" have much to do with the "evidence" laid out in the OP. Of course, those were dealt with pretty much on page 1.
Shouldn't it be "Evidence for how..." not "Evidence for why..."?
!
Could everyone reply this way to DOC's posts from here on, please? Would bring the threads to a halt pretty quickly. Again,.
You are at least consistent, This is factual statement about his OPINION regarding this topic. Besides, he died in 1900 we have garnered a lot more archeological information as well as uncovered more manuscripts in the last 110 years. As it is an opinion, one made more than 110 years ago, it does not support your opening post.
Appologies, Have I missed a ball?
Waterman said:Hmmm, citing a guy who has been dead since 1853 (157 years) and yes you are making a factual statement regarding his OPINION on the matter. As this boils down to an opinion is does not support your opening post.
Originally Posted by DOC:
Oxford professor Thomas Arnold's statement regarding the evidence of Christ and the Resurrection and how he considered them to have more historical evidence than any other fact in history up to that point.
Yes it is the opinion of an Oxford Scholar and the author of the 3 volume "History of Rome".
And you don't say what recent archaeological and historical evidence makes his opinion any less valuable today.
And to this date I have never seen any archaeological evidence that disproves the bible.
. . . But there is a lot that supports it.
And Pax and Hoku do the same thing -- criticizing older quotes just because they are old without giving any evidence to support why.
As John Wooden has said, "the problem with new books is they keep us from reading the old ones."
Posted by DOC
Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.
More of the if it's not recent its probably not right thinking.
And actually if divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses it does increase the likelihood the NT writers were telling the truth since some of their accounts seem on the surface to differ. But as many websites point out, everything that appears not to be similar on the surface like the one angel and two angel accounts are not actually conflicting and a logical explanation can be given for what seems at first glance to be differing accounts. I have never seen one seeming inconsistency in the Gospel accounts that can't be logically explained. I've already given explanations earlier in the thread for the one and two angel accounts at the tomb of Christ.
Originally Posted by DOC:
Oxford professor Thomas Arnold's statement regarding the evidence of Christ and the Resurrection and how he considered them to have more historical evidence than any other fact in history up to that point.
Yes it is the opinion of an Oxford Scholar and the author of the 3 volume "History of Rome".
And you don't say what recent archaeological and historical evidence makes his opinion any less valuable today.
And to this date I have never seen any archaeological evidence that disproves the bible. But there is a lot that supports it.
And Pax and Hoku do the same thing -- criticizing older quotes just because they are old without giving any evidence to support why.
As John Wooden has said, "the problem with new books is they keep us from reading the old ones."
Possibly not; I took joobz's comment to mean that there had been some new one's in DOC's post, but perhaps he just meant that there were a lot of old balls in his post.
Yes,
I was being facetious.
I just figured that it would be nice to come to an agreement on SOMETHING. Even if it is a quibble.Or simply "Evidence That the New Testament Writers Told the Truth," but considering the singular lack of said evidence, it seems a bit pointless to quibble over the awkwardness of the title now.
So it was just a lot of old balls?
Appeal to authority is still a stupid argument.Posted by DOC
Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.
Yes, faithful believers faithfully believe that faithful belief.
The consensus of scholars is somewhat later - no real scholar thinks it was written c.50AD
But IF it was written that early -
WHY did no CHRISTIAN show knowledge of it until mid 2nd century?
Consider these Christian books with approx. dates :
60s - Hebrews - NO mention of Gospel(s)
80s - 1 John - NO mention of Gospel(s)
80s - James - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - Ephesians - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - 2 Thess. - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - 1 Peter - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - 1 Clement - NO mention of Gospel(s)
90s - Revelation - NO mention of Gospel(s)
100s - Didakhe - NO mention of Gospel(s)
100s - Jude - NO mention of Gospel(s)
110s - Barnabas - NO mention of Gospel(s)
120s - 2,3 John - NO mention of Gospel(s)
120s - Apoc.Peter - NO mention of Gospel(s)
120s - SecretJames - NO mention of Gospel(s)
120s - Preaching.Peter - NO mention of Gospel(s)
130s - 2 Peter - NO mention of Gospel(s)
130s - Pastorals - NO mention of Gospel(s)
130s - Hermas - NO mention of Gospel(s)
130s - Polycarp - NO mention of Gospel(s)
The first 2 DOZEN books of Christianity say NOTHING about the Gospels.
Finally in mid 2nd century they become known, as Aristrides told us, which you ignored.
The evidence is clear - the Gospels were UNKNOWN, even to Christians, until about mid 2nd century.
K.
Gday,
The GOSPELS themselves were completely unknown in the 1st century.
But, in the 2nd century we start to see some references to written Gospels - WITHOUT author's names. The names were only attached in late 2nd C., probably by Irenaeus.
Apology of Aristides, 138-161CE :
And it is said that God came down from heaven, and from a Hebrew virgin assumed and clothed himself with flesh; and the Son of God lived in a daughter of man. This is taught in the gospel, as it is called, which a short time was preached among them; and you also if you will read therein, may perceive the power which belongs to it.
This is obvious evidence of a written work which is specifically named "The Gospel" - but no name is given.
Furthermore, Aristides says this SINGULAR un-named Gospel was fairly NEW in the period 138-161 - clear evidence of the lateness of the Gospels, and the lateness of late naming.
Justin Martyr's 1st Apology, 150-160CE :
Ch. 66 : For the apostles, in the memoirs composed by them, which are called Gospels...
Justin Martyr's Dialogue with Trypho, 150-160CE, 3 references :
Ch. 100 : For I have showed already that Christ is called both Jacob and Israel; and I have proved that it is not in the blessing of Joseph and Judah alone that what relates to Him was proclaimed mysteriously, but also in the Gospel it is written that He said: 'All things are delivered unto me by My Father;' and, 'No man knoweth the Father but the Son; nor the Son but the Father, and they to whom the Son will reveal Him.'
This is all clear and obvious evidence of written works called Gospels - but no names given, even though Justin explicitly tells us what they were named ("which are called Gospels".) If Justin knew of any author's names he would CERTAINLY have given them.
The Acts of Peter, 150-200CE :
And Peter entered into the dining-hall and saw that the Gospel was being read, and he rolled up the book and said: Ye men that believe and hope in Christ, learn in what manner the holy Scripture of our Lord ought to be declared: whereof we by his grace wrote that which we could receive, though yet it appear unto you feeble, yet according to our power, even that which can be endured to be borne by (or instilled into) human flesh.
This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.
The Treatise on the Resurrection, 170-200CE, 1 reference :
What, then, is the resurrection? It is always the disclosure of those who have risen. For if you remember reading in the Gospel that Elijah appeared and Moses with him, do not think the resurrection is an illusion.
This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.
Hegesippus Fragments, c. 170CE :
With show of reason could it be said that Symeon was one of those who actually saw and heard the Lord, on the ground of his great age, and also because the Scripture of the Gospels makes mention of Mary the daughter of Clopas, who, as our narrative has shown already, was his father.
This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.
It's clear that the Gospels were UN-NAMED until late 2nd century.
K.
All of these "facts", most of which have been refuted, don't even support your premise. But just for fun, here we go:
Discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5093485#post5093485
Discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=2659155#post2659155
Although there are bits and bobs of discussion about this, the best summary of this in all its forms is here:
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/moral-arguments-god/
Discussed (ad nauseum) here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4984792#post4984792
Discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5042421#post5042421
Discussion on the 9 non-Christian sources for the life of Christ (ignoring the 31 Christian sources as it is using the NT as evidence for the NT, yellow flag, 15 yard penalty, repeat 3rd down):
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=3279037#post3279037
Ignoring the bit about Caesar as being a meaningless tu quoque.
Well, this is the closest thing to being a fact (at least the bit about Nero). Of course, most of the credit can go to Paul who, as we all know, never met Jesus in person. At best, he had some sort of visionary experience. I would say this point is more evidence that Paul was convincing than what he believed had any basis in truth. Of course, many people have tried to use the spread of Christianity as an argument of its truth, but that rarely ends well, as can be seen here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?t=94853&page=3
Refuted here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4705438#post4705438
And here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4708185#post4708185
And here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4720381#post4720381
Partially discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5124142#post5124142
More discussion here, with much more detail about any archeological support of any biblical story:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4997467#post4997467
Discussed here:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4664470#post4664470
The same questions are repeated because these arguments have all been refuted, and just like a Weeble, they keep coming back up again.
And most interestingly, none of these "facts" have much to do with the "evidence" laid out in the OP. Of course, those were dealt with pretty much on page 1.
Posted by DOC
Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.
More of the if it's not recent its probably not right thinking.
And actually if divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses it does increase the likelihood the NT writers were telling the truth since some of their accounts seem on the surface to differ. But as many websites point out, everything that appears not to be similar on the surface like the one angel and two angel accounts are not actually conflicting and a logical explanation can be given for what seems at first glance to be differing accounts. I have never seen one seeming inconsistency in the Gospel accounts that can't be logically explained. I've already given explanations earlier in the thread for the one and two angel accounts at the tomb of Christ.
Greenleaf is an important figure in the development of that Christian school of thought known as legal or juridical apologetics. <snip> He is distinguished as one who applied the canons of the ancient document rule to establish the authenticity of the gospel accounts, as well as cross-examination principles in assessing the testimony of those who bore witness to the crucifixion and resurrection of Christ.
An ancient document, in the law of evidence, refers to both a means of authentication for a piece of documentary evidence, and an exception to the hearsay rule.
Authentication
With respect to authentication, an "ancient document" is one that may be deemed authentic without a witness to attest to the circumstances of its creation because its age suggests that it is unlikely to have been falsified in anticipation of the litigation in which it is introduced.
Under the American Federal Rules of Evidence ("FRE"), a document is deemed authentic if it is:
at least twenty years old;
in a condition that makes it free from suspicion concerning its authenticity; and
found in a place where such a writing was likely to be kept.
Many states have similar rules, but may limit the application of the doctrine to specific kinds of documents such as dispositive instruments (primarily conveyances, deeds, and wills), and may require the documents to be even older.
By admitting an ancient document into evidence, it is presumed only that the document is what it purports to be, but there are no presumptions about the truth of the document's contents. A jury can still decide that the author of the document was lying or mistaken when the author wrote it.
Simon Greenleaf has surfaced (resurfaced) in the discussion and I thought I would look into what I could learn.
All Quotes from Wikipedia
Re: Simon Green Leaf
There is more on him there than that but this was relevant to the point at hand. I had never heard of the ancient document rule and thought that this sounded interesting. This is sounding suspiciously like ‘because it is old it is true.’
Re: Ancient Document Rule
I could see where this would apply in certain legal documents where the signatories have all passed away.
Hmm... this is a head scratcher… it seems to be saying that because they couldn’t know how it was going to be used today they wouldn’t have written it to support the case. However I don’t know that the NT meets this test. When it was assembled it was with the expressed idea to be the foundation of the Church and is still being used for that today. This is not some new application it still being used as it was intended to by the drafters.
Also I note they use the word authentic not true. I don’t know the legal distinctions there.
Yea! There are some limitations based on the ‘AND’ it has to meet all three!
20 years old. CHECK
Free of Suspicion regarding authenticity. Ooh big problem there, questions exist regarding authorship as well as transcription errors / edits. This is one area that Greenleaf may have failed to consider.
Found in appropriate place. More problems, we have no clue as to where the disparate documents were found that were assembled into the Bible.
The use of this rule is often limited property transaction, deeds and wills. The Bible does not meet this criteria
Based on my understanding of this information is that the legal thinking has advanced some since Greenleaf arrived at his conclusion. The use of the Ancient Document Rule that he used as one of his founding principals does not appear to apply to the Bible with the current thinking.
Therefore his opinion on the matter doesn’t count as fact because it is opinion AND it is outdated.
Originally Posted by DOC:
Yes it is the opinion of an Oxford Scholar and the author of the 3 volume "History of Rome".
And you don't say what recent archaeological and historical evidence makes his opinion any less valuable today.
And to this date I have never seen any archaeological evidence that disproves the bible. But there is a lot that supports it.
And Pax and Hoku do the same thing -- criticizing older quotes just because they are old without giving any evidence to support why.
As John Wooden has said, "the problem with new books is they keep us from reading the old ones."
Oxford professor Thomas Arnold's statement regarding the evidence of Christ and the Resurrection and how he considered them to have more historical evidence than any other fact in history up to that point.
Posted by DOC
Simon Greenleaf, a founder of Harvard Law School, said the 4 Gospel accounts could be admitted in a court as evidence, and that divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses.
And actually if divergent accounts are normal for eyewitnesses it does increase the likelihood the NT writers were telling the truth since some of their accounts seem on the surface to differ. But as many websites point out, everything that appears not to be similar on the surface like the one angel and two angel accounts are not actually conflicting and a logical explanation can be given for what seems at first glance to be differing accounts. I have never seen one seeming inconsistency in the Gospel accounts that can't be logically explained. I've already given explanations earlier in the thread for the one and two angel accounts at the tomb of Christ.