Do you believe mental states are identical to brain states? For example, would the mental state of Joe being in pain be identical to some physical brain state of Joe's?
What's more relevant is that physicalism would assert this. Whether or not any particular person believes it isn't so relevant--so long as this is your argument against physicalism.
If they are identical, do you agree we can gain knowledge of Joe's pain brain state without actually making our own brains match Joe's particular brain state (e.g., by running high-tech brain scans while Joe is in pain)?
Under physicalism, yes. But don't confuse knowledge
about a thing with the thing in itself.
If we can gain knowledge of brain states without actually experiecing the brain state in question, and mental states are identical to brain states, then we can gain knowledge of mental states without experiencing the brain state in question.
But what you are trying to show is that there is a non-physical difference between Mary experiencing red and Mary not experiencing red. To show this, you need to have a Mary that experiences red, and one that doesn't, and you need to show that these distinct states are
physically indistinguishable.
But if S
1 is the brain state associated with
seeing red, then by preventing Mary from seeing red, you're keeping Mary from ever having this brain state. In your
attempt to make Mary physically indistinguishable though, you have Mary learn "everything" there is to know
about seeing red, but you restrict her from actually doing so. But don't confuse knowledge
about a thing with the thing in itself. When Mary learns
about seeing red in this sense, her brain hasn't actually been put into S
1--it's a different state, S
2. No matter how much more theoretical knowledge you cram in, with the restriction that Mary never actually see red, you're not going to have a Mary with the
actual brain state of S
1--you're only going to refine S
2.
This is because, under physicalism, Mary doesn't have brain state S
1 unless she experiences red--and Mary doesn't experience red unless she has brain state S
1.
So long as S
1 never occurs, S
1 never occurred. So whenever you're ready to actually introduce this new mental state of
seeing red, you're going to necessarily create a new brain state--S
1.
In doing so, your Mary-that-sees-red is
physically distinguishable from Mary-that-doesn't-see-red.
But you seem to smell this already, even though you haven't connected it all of the way yet. Your mind-wipe scenario dances around this by having Mary actually have S
1, but forget about it. That's fine, but here you're focusing on
memory rather than active experience, and it's the same problem over again. You now have a class of Mary's that is R
1--Mary's that remember seeing red. But you knock Mary's brain out of this state with the mind-wipe. So now her brain is in a different class of states--R
2. Then you introduce Mary to red, and (in this case) you remove the red stimulus. Now Mary's back into the R
1 class of brain states. No problem--there's still a physical distinction.
Furthermore, consider the doppleganger-Mary in my previous example. That Mary was arbitrarily put into brain state R
1 without ever having brain state S
1. But the alleged absurdity boils away with this--this Mary
thinks she has seen red before, even if she didn't, because she had a false memory of her being in brain state S
1 implanted into her head.
The common denominator in all of these cases is that you're creating what you believe to be a
mental distinction, and are just
saying that there's no physical distinction. The obvious counter is simply physicalism taken seriously in the first place--if you have your mental distinction, there would be a corresponding physical one.