No such thing. I've been here for years and never thought I'd say this...but show me evidence that people experience anger the same way. So if I throw a chair and you throw a chair we must be experiencing the exact same anger? I'll say it again, your assertion that two people can experience the same emotion, in this case anger, in the same way is ludicrous. Prove it.
I'm not sure if this is what you're after, but while there is a lot of variation in the way our brains are organized, the major structures are the same from one person to the next. (Someone made the analogy that if you considered the organization of the brain to be a map of roads and highways, the interstates are the same in every person, and the state highways are mostly the same, but there's some variation in the exact layout of small subdivision roads and especially those unnamed gravel roads in the country.)
When brain surgeons are removing a tumor, they often work with the patient awake so that they can simulate various structures to make sure they're not cutting into something important (speech centers, for example). The sensory cortex maps out with some consistency from person to person. (Surely you've seen the sensory and motor maps drawn as a homunculus?) If you stimulate the spot that receives sensory input from the thumb, for example, the subjective experience reported is a sensation on the thumb.
There's no reason to think it isn't the same with emotions.
I'm not sure where this side topic came up, but if this is meant to be an argument that subjective experience requires some non-material explanation because subjective experience is somehow inaccessible to neuroscience (it's not), the simplest rebuttal is to point out that non-material explanations (dualism) don't do anything to solve this "problem".
I think this question is one I pondered and disposed of when I was maybe 8 years old.
I remember wondering whether what I perceive as "orange" is the same experience other people have when they perceive "orange". All the associations we have with all the colors could be different so that another person might see green for orange, but it would have all the same associations as orange, so there would be no way for them to communicate that they see that color as what I call blue. Of course, it's the same wavelength of the EM spectrum that causes the appropriate sensory cells in the retina to covert stimulation by photons into action potentials that travel along the same pathways to homologous structures in our primary visual cortices, so the whole question is meaningless.
The same is true of emotions. At some levels the experience we subjectively feel is the result of some frequency of action potentials. The chemistry works the same in your brain as in my brain, by and large.