True, but there would be monopolies under libertarian systems and these would be abused.
Most libertarians believe there would be fewer effective monopolies, and that is advanced and supported to justify the merit of their philosophy. However their philosophy, again, has nothing to say about monopolies being bad, or what constitutes abuse. Market dominance (bargaining power) gleaned without violating others' liberty is not something that libertarianism would seek to dismantle
if it existed.
Governments create monopolistic trade deliberately in several cases as well. Some of them probably serve society, some don't. I tend to think one gets more monopolies the bigger the government is--which would mean more beneficient ones
and more malign ones.
"Most libertarians believe there would be fewer effective monopolies" is probably a true statement of libertarian beliefs. I have seen this asserted several times, however I have rarely seen this argued, let alone convincingly. I, however see more reason and historical precedent to believe that the converse is the case and that there would be more effective monopolies and especially cartels. I would argue that a certain level of government is needed to manage them.
Europe in the early middle ages had inefficient and weak central government, but there were many local monopolies, from the allocated mills to the guilds, and the entire feudal system.
A lot of the local monopolies were parts of the governments in the cases of merchant princes in city-state republics.
During the reformation and the age of enlightenment, central government was a lot more inefficient than now, and there were many granted monopolies, for example the
VOC
I would argue that much of law concerning commerce and business has actually arisen in response to particular abuses and problems that needed fixing, including abuse of market power.
I would say that Enron's manipulation of energy prices in California would be demonstrating an admirable libertarian approach. (The fraud wasn't, but milking a monopoly is just great).
Morals and ethics are ultimately derived from value-judgements, which have ultimately the same *logical* justification as aesthetic decisions.
Well Kant didn't think they did; he thought they were derived from reason and "categorical imperatives"; hence he apparently would refuse to lie to a murderer. But science can't derive them, I would agree.
I would agree except that it isn't science, but quite simple logic:
At least theists can define "good" in terms of what they think their their deity wants. So they can in this respect claim a logical framework for morals, albeit one that I would argue is based in an incorrect first assumption: "God exists and what God wants is axiomatically good". Rejecting this first assumption, one eventually gets to the ultimate reason, "Because it feels right to my primate emotions". I like to think that I have strong opinions on morality, and right and wrong, it is just that I accept that the ultimate arbiter of my morality is based on my evolved feelings as a social animal.
Probably an interesting discussion, but one for the "inherent rights" threads...