Okay, I know the OP is a bit ingenuous because obviously nobody knows. BUT, O'Shea very early in the book states that it is highly unlikely that the universe is infinite because "space and matter are intimately related, and the assertion that the universe has an infinite amount of matter causes serious theoretical problems", and leaves it there.
What theoretical problrms arise which makes an infinite universe unlikely?
We can only see part of the universe because the speed of light is finite and the universe has only been transparent for a finite time (call it 14 billion years). As a result, everything we see today is or was within a sphere of about 14 billion lightyears in radius centered on the earth. So we can't ever know for sure whether the universe is finite or infinite.
That said, we have some models for the universe on large scales which are simple, arise from simple and elegant theoretical principles, and explain what we see. Those models make the assumption that the universe is homogeneous and isotropic on average (meaning every point and every direction is equivalent on average, and so the earth doesn't occupy any unusual or special location). If that assumption is correct, there are only three possibilities: the universe is finite and has positive curvature and the spatial geometry of a 3D spherical surface (a hypersphere), or it's infinite and has zero spatial curvature (a hyperplane), or it's infinite and has negative spatial curvature (a hyperhyperboloid).
The data might never distinguish between those for certain (again because we only see part of the space), but it is consistent with flat space. Since that's the simplest possibility - the other two have an extra parameter, their curvature - it's the one currently favored.
Are there problems with it? No, not really, except perhaps confusions that arise from having an infinite number of regions and therefore an infinite number of possible observations. But if we live in an (appropriately defined) typical region, those problems go away, and might even make the model more predictive.
Having only a non-mathematical person's grasp of cosmology, I'll hazard that it would be related to the amount of matter necessary for the universe to collapse into a "big crunch".
Also, an "infinite" amount of mass could not have been the result of a "bang" event, as it would still have to be going on....
If the universe is infinite the big bang is still going on in a sense - that sense being that new parts of the singular hypersurface become "visible" every moment. But because the universe was opaque early on, that manifests itself simply as the arrival of more cosmic microwave background photons.