It made perfect sense for John not to refer to himself by name. Being the last of the living apostles, he was almost certainly aware that all of his fellow apostles had been martyred. Why advertise who you are to the brutal Romans who would think nothing of killing a Christian writer. Even after doing this, he still ended up getting banished to the island of Patmos.So if the entire gospel were actually written by John, why does he refer to himself in the third person only part of the time?
It made perfect sense for John not to refer to himself by name. Being the last of the living apostles, he was almost certainly aware that all of his fellow apostles had been martyred. Why advertise who you are to the brutal Romans who would think nothing of killing a Christian writer.
Even after doing this, he still ended up getting banished to the island of Patmos.
If you were a Jewish writer in Nazi Germany in 1940 would you use your real name to write about things you knew the Nazis could kill or jail you for. Why not live to write or preach another day.
What swaths of the Old Testament were written "for" polytheists. Name the Chapters and explain why they were written for Polytheists.Large swaths of the Old Testament.
Where did John ever use his name in his Gospel?That wasn't even close to my question. Why does John refer to himself in the third person part of the time?
What swaths of the Old Testament were written "for" polytheists. Name the Chapters and explain why they were written for Polytheists.
Where did John ever use his name in his Gospel?
What swaths of the Old Testament were written "for" polytheists. Name the Chapters and explain why they were written for Polytheists.
That link is broken, try this one.Your response doesn't answer my question.
It makes even more sense for a person writing about other people to write about them in the third person.It made perfect sense for John not to refer to himself by name.
That link is broken, try this one.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/El_(god)
It's a short article, you can see the clear connection.
DOC, are you suggesting that a link to an article that specifically lists the biblical passages and shows the translations doesn't answer your question? If that is the case, please provide evidence that the NT writers told the truth. And by the way, by your new rules, a link to Geisler's book doesn't count.
Why does John refer to himself in the third person part of the time?
What book of John are you talking about?
What verses does he refer to himself in first person and what verses 3rd person?
21:24 starts with it appearing that the author claims to be "the disciple" mentioned in the preceding passage: "This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things". Pretty dumb if he was trying to conceal his identity. On the other hand it ends by talking about him in the third person: "we know that his testimony is true" (no, DOC, that is not evidence that the New Testament writers told the truth).
After reading that, I get the idea that this beloved disciple was a bit more than friends with Jesus. Especially when you read the section that was being referenced (John 13:21-30).Well, that's not quite how those verses should be interpreted, the KJV is almost impossible to parse at times. The RSV makes it a bit more clear what is meant. The writer is claiming that there is a "beloved disciple", who is never directly named, that was with Jesus at the very end, and is suggested to still be alive when Jesus returns (although Jesus does use weasel words to get around any claims that that disciple won't actually die, or something).
The author of John then states that it is this disciple (i.e., the one who was hanging around at the very end) that saw and wrote about all of the stuff. Not that the beloved disciple was necessarily John. So now either John wasn't the beloved disciple (meaning he wasn't an eyewitness after all and this is all hearsay), or he was and like you said, isn't trying to conceal his identity as DOC is trying to claim.
21:24 starts with it appearing that the author claims to be "the disciple" mentioned in the preceding passage: "This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things". Pretty dumb if he was trying to conceal his identity
So John is Jesus' gay lover?Not really.