Ichneumonwasp
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- Feb 2, 2006
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If there are reasons why you know the (alleged) current ending was a medieval addition (you again gave no source) why did Irenaeus quote the possible addition in 180 ad.
From the article "Alleged forgery in the Gospel of Mark" by B.A. Robinson.
"One addition was quoted in the writings of Irenaeus circa 180 CE, 9 and of Hippolytus in the second or third century CE."
http://www.religioustolerance.org/mark_16.htm
And even if there was an addition, the gospel "without" the alleged addition "still" reports that the women went to the tomb, found the stone rolled back, found the tomb empty and a man with a long white garment there who frightened them. The man then told them that Jesus has risen and that Jesus would meet the apostles in Galilee.
First, yes, of course Mark's gospel has the women seeing the empty tomb and seeing the angel, and then running away. I don't know anyone who doubts that. That wasn't the issue. The issue was whether or not the current ending was original to Mark.
Irenaeus quotes a single line: "So then, after the Lord Jesus had spoken to them, He was received up into heaven, and sits on the right hand of God" in Book 3, chapter 10 of Against Heresies.
There is no way to know that this included the entire ending or if it was one of the shorter versions that we don't have in full. We have a few other shorter versions and several of the earliest texts do not include this ending.
That some or part of that longer ending was a second century tradition is doubted by few. We just don't have any copies that have the longer version in them, as far as I know, until the late fourth or early fifth century.
You stated that a scribe would have added this knowing what was true because he was writing soon after the events. Irenaeus wrote 150 years after these events and at least 80 years after the gospel was orignially written. If he is your only evidence, then conjecture that a scribe would have known the events is merely that -- bare conjecture -- and not supported by the facts in evidence.
It would make more sense to conjecture that the original did not contain those lines but that variants arose because scribes did not like the ending. Irenaeus may have come into contact with one of these variants. There is no way to be sure if what he saw included the entire long ending.
ETA:
I notice that you left out the fact that I stated that many think the longer ending was a second century compilation.
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