Hittman
Scholar
- Joined
- Jul 16, 2005
- Messages
- 117
Given the undeniably high rate of deaths and injuries that occur in a non-self defensive circumstance as a result of readily accessible loaded firearms, it seems illogical to argue that doing so is a good idea for a very very small number of incidents where a victim may or may not be able to protect themselves with a readily accessible loaded firearm.
It's actually pretty low. 60% of US firearm deaths are suicides. 40% are Homicides, 3% are accidental and 2% are legal (mostly cops killing people.) The numbers are, of course, approximate, so they don't add up to 100%. For 2005 there were 30694 gun deaths, but if we subtract the suicides we're looking at 12,277, out of 300,000,000 people.
But guns don't exist just to kill – they are used far more often to intimidate, to present a credible threat of force that can scare a criminal away without firing a shot. It's hard to get a good number on this, because, given the legal climate in this country, if you scare away a burglar it's not a great idea to call the cops and tell them about it. The federal government estimates this happens 100,000 times a year, which seems way too low. Gun enthusiasts claim it's 2.5 million times a year, which seems way too high. (That's just a little below 1% of the population.) The real number is somewhere in the middle – but let's say we go with the very lowest, the federal number. If we were to leave those people defenseless, how many of those events would have turned into homicides?
The simple statistical fact is if you have a loaded accessible firearm in your house, that weapon is far, far more likely to be used to kill or inflict injury on you or a member of your family than it is to protect you.
This is another gun-grabber fun-with-statistics BS number. The actual claim isn't family member, but "someone you know." Think about it. Are you more likely to be attacked by a complete stranger, or someone you know? Duh.
Only because it is wrong.
You might want to bone up on some basic constitutional laws and principles.
The first amendment guarantees the right of free assembly. Yet the government can require you to obtain a permit, can they not?
On government property, yes. But not in your home. And I'd argue that the requirement on government property is unconstitutional.
Rights are not absolute. If gun ownership was an absolute right, then the government could not deny felons the right to own guns.
A felon, by definition, has broken the law. Just as someone who has, say, put up a web site threatening the president can be prohibited from using the internet as part of their punishment, a felon can lose their right to firearms, voting, and whatever else Big Brother wants to take away.
The government does whatever it pleases, and frequently, make that usually, ignores the constitution. Using that as justification for your claims shows a basic misunderstanding of what rights are and how they are supposed to work.
