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Materealism and morality

Look, I'm not saying that dragons exist, I'm just pointing out that it's conceivable that they might.

Isn't it conceivable that the dinosaur bones we think we've found are actually dragon bones?

And again! I'm not saying that UFO's really are aliens- I am just saying that we don't know... So it's conceivable that UFO's are visitors from space. I'm not claiming that they are.

But if you can at least admit that it's conceivable, I don't see why you won't admit that Dinosaurs never ruled the Earth and what we've found is the remains of Dragon Burial Grounds.

Look, I'm not claiming that Slippery Space Dragons are REAL, OK? Sheesh, guys, I'm not crazy...

You totally miss my point. Read again post #254.

You don't adress any point that I actually make; instead you dedicated the whole quoted post to the point that you think I make.

Do you understand what I mean when I say that two things are logically seperate? Do you agree that if A and B are logically seperate, they cannot be the same thing?
 
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You totally miss my point. Read again post #254.

You don't adress any point that I actually make; instead you dedicated the whole quoted post to the point that you think I make.

Oh, I didn't miss your point. You missed mine, I think...

Jetleg, you're basing assumptions and then asking us to address those assumptions as if they had substance.

Why bother? They don't.


The mind and the brain are not different substances and therefor separable.

No more than my computer is separate from it's processing. If I smash my computer- It no worky no more.
 
Oh, I didn't miss your point. You missed mine, I think...

Jetleg, you're basing assumptions and then asking us to address those assumptions as if they had substance.

Why bother? They don't.


The mind and the brain are not different substances and therefor separable.

No more than my computer is separate from it's processing. If I smash my computer- It no worky no more.

Ok, I give up.
 
JetLeg:

It is conceivable to think of the mind existing without the brain. And it is conceivable to think of the brain existing without the mind. Therefore they are logically seperate entities.


JoeTheJuggler:

That's a non-sequitur. The fact that something is conceivable doesn't prove anything about anything. Your "therefore" statement doesn't logically flow from anything you said before it.

Huh? The fact that it is conceivable to think of A existing without B existing doesn't prove that they are logically seperate???

See post #254 for a fuller argumentation.
 
First, it seems that you misunderstand my version of dualism.

I do not claim that the mind can exist seperately[sic] from the brain.
No, but you attempted to use as an argument that the mind and brain are separate "entities" by saying that it is "conceivable" that there could exist disembodied minds.

I'm saying it is not conceivable, any more than it is conceivable than the existence of "roundness" or "bouncing" independent of the ball (both property and function of the ball).


What I do claim is that the mind and the brain are radically different "substances", "entities". One of them (the brain), perhaps, causes the other, but they are still fundamentally different in nature.
Again, a property of the object is fundamentally different in nature from the object, but that doesn't mean they're separate entities or substances.

The nature of the mind is subjective. Nobody but you can experience your thoughts and feelings. Even if with neurobiology we will be able to know perfectly what one man thinks and feels, this won't be the same as experiencing his thoughts and feelings, which is impossible.
So? Dualism offers no way around that problem. (Care to revisit the issue of the mind-reader?) In fact, taking the mind as a collection of properties and/or functions of the brain, it's not a problem for neuroscience. It is a problem for dualism (which asserts that there is something separate yet inaccessible from the outside).

And yet, it might be that the brain causes the mind. I have no problem with that. One substance, which is radically differ from the other one, causes it.
I think you're just abusing the language so much that you're basically trying to argue that dualism is another form of materialism. I don't buy that.

There are not two substances. There are not two separate objects. There is an object and its properties. One "causes" the other the same way a ball "causes" roundness. (We don't usually speak of the relationship between objects and their properties or functions as "causal".)


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My argument from conceivability doesn't try to establish that the mind can exist seperately from the body, like you seem to think. I do not argue "a disembodied consciousness is conceivable, therefore it is plausible", though both you and Neverfly constantly accuse me of it.
That's not what I've been saying at all. I'm saying that asking for the concession that p-zombies or disembodied minds is conceivable is tantamount to begging the question.

It attempts to separate the object and the properties (like separating "roundness" from the ball) so that you can then argue that they are two separate objects and not a property and an object. If you get me to concede that it's conceivable that "roundness" can exist independently of "the ball", or that there is a zombie ball (one that looks round, but lacks "roundness"), then I have conceded dualism with respect to "roundness" and "the ball".

Do you understand why I'm saying that asking for this concession is tantamount to begging the question?

If not, re-read what I've written more carefully. You have mischaracterized my objection to making the concession.

What it does try to prove is that they are logically seperate[sic], and therefore they cannot be the same thing.
Exactly. And that is the definition of dualism, is it not? And you're asking me to concede the point as a premise to an argument that you will then make to support dualism. That's called "begging the question".

I say abandon this approach and simply make the case for dualism.

(Though one can cause the other). I argue two things : 1) Things that can be logically seperated [sic] cannot be the same thing. 2) If two things can be logically seperated [sic], one cannot be a property of the other.
And I use the argument from conceivability to prove that they can be logically seperated [sic].
The last point first: that something is conceivable doesn't say anything about whether it is logical.
As for the rest, it's the same question begging. You're asking me to concede that the mind and the brain are two separate entities as a premise for a case for dualism. But in fact, that premise IS dualism. You're asking me to concede dualism so that you can make an argument FOR dualism.

Since you've demanded my reply to specific things you've posted, I ask you to read carefully my analogy to the zombie universe (the one with no galaxy) as the first step in the argument that in our universe gravity is dualistic (caused by magic) and not a property of mass.

I do not think the mind is a property of the brain, but a different substance. The mind is not a property of the brain -> it is caused by the brain.
These are radically different. The type of relationship that exists between a thing and its property is not a causal one.
Yes, I know that. But asserting your belief and making a case for it isn't the same thing.

I've shown the abundance of evidence from biology (neuroscience in particular) that support the idea that the mind (a term used for a number of mental processes taken collectively) is a property or function of the brain.


I hope that my position is more clear now. I certainly feel that you are doing an injustice to my arguments.
Your position has been clear to me all along. As I said, I've run into this approach to dualism many time before. In the absence of any case for dualism, you're simply asking me to concede the premise of dualism.

If it's otherwise, you're trying to predicate existence of an entity (whose existence is the question)--that is, "the mind" (as a separate object). In this approach, you're argument suffers from the same problem as the Ontological Argument for the existence of God. (I said this before, but as with most of what I've said, you ignored it and merely repeated your case.)
 
Huh? The fact that it is conceivable to think of A existing without B existing doesn't prove that they are logically seperate [sic]???
Correct.

It's called predicating existence. (In this case, "existence" is hidden in the term "logically separate"--which can really mean "exists separately".) I've mentioned twice now that it's a problem (even if you get the concession that I'm not willing to give) your approach shares with the Ontological Argument for the existence of God. I suggest you look it up, since you don't seem to understand why you can't prove anything from the fact that something is conceivable.
 
I've shown the abundance of evidence from biology (neuroscience in particular) that support the idea that the mind (a term used for a number of mental processes taken collectively) is a property or function of the brain.


My position is that the mind is a different entity than the brain ; that it is conceivable to think of it as being seperate ; yet it is probably caused by the brain, though not being a property of it. Give me one single evidence against it. All that the evidence shows is that the mind is caused by the brain, not that it is a property of it.
 
The last point first: that something is conceivable doesn't say anything about whether it is logical.
As for the rest, it's the same question begging. You're asking me to concede that the mind and the brain are two separate entities as a premise for a case for dualism. But in fact, that premise IS dualism. You're asking me to concede dualism so that you can make an argument FOR dualism.

Huh? Can you give me a single example of something that is conceivable but logically impossible?

That something is conceivable doesn't say anything about whether it is true. But it does say something whether it is logical.


I want to clarify : IF you would grant me the conceivability of dualism -> would you then agree that the mind is not a property of the brain? I want to be clear on that.

On one hand you say that the conceivability of p-zombies would be question begging for dualism. I understand that it means the conceivability of p-zombies proves dualism? Otherwise, how it is question begging?

On the other hand, I am quoting you :

You are going to try to argue that the conceivability of the p-zombie somehow supports dualism. It does not.


If it doesn't, why is it question-begging to assume that????



(My whole argument is that it is impossible to conceive of a property without the thing that it is property of. It is possible in the case of a disembodied mind, hence it isn't a property of the brain).
 
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Correct.

It's called predicating existence. (In this case, "existence" is hidden in the term "logically separate"--which can really mean "exists separately".) I've mentioned twice now that it's a problem (even if you get the concession that I'm not willing to give) your approach shares with the Ontological Argument for the existence of God. I suggest you look it up, since you don't seem to understand why you can't prove anything from the fact that something is conceivable.

Can you refer me to the specific criticism of the ontological argument that it relevant?

"logically separate" certainly doesn't mean "exists separately", but it means CAN exist separately. So I don't see your point.
 
Can you refer me to the specific criticism of the ontological argument that it relevant?

"logically separate" certainly doesn't mean "exists separately", but it means CAN exist separately. So I don't see your point.

Again: Provide Evidence that the Mind and the Brain CAN exist separately.
 
I can't even think of an analogy to this sort of argument. It absurd. It would be like saying that I question the existence of gravity because I can conceive of a "zombie" universe that has no gravity, but I then proceed to claim that gravity is caused by magic and is not a physical property of matter.

Quiet the opposite.


I cannot imagine the existance of gravity without the existance of matter. It seems meaningless. Therefore, I can conclude that gravity is a property of matter.

On the other hand, I can conceive of minds existing without brains...
 
Quiet the opposite.


I cannot imagine the existance of gravity without the existance of matter. It seems meaningless. Therefore, I can conclude that gravity is a property of matter.

On the other hand, I can conceive of minds existing without brains...

You can fantasize therefor it's real?

Brane theory. I already told you.

So WHAT if you Think you can imagine them as separate? They aren't separate anymore than imagining that a soul must be real makes one real or imagining that you can shoot lasers out of your eyes makes you do so.
 
Again: Provide Evidence that the Mind and the Brain CAN exist separately.

You miss the distinction between a logical CAN and a "real" one.

Is there a logical contradiction in a married batchelor? Yes there is.

Is there a logical contradiction in Barack Obama flying by flapping his hands? No.

Can a married batchelor exist in the logical sense? No. Can Barack Obama fly by flapping his hands, when can is used in the logical sense? Yes -> the case is conceivable unlike the case of a married batchelor.


I am not saying that the mind CAN physically exist seperately from the brain, in fact I think the opposite. I am talking about a logical CAN.
 
You miss the distinction between a logical CAN and a "real" one.


I am not saying that the mind CAN physically exist seperately from the brain, in fact I think the opposite. I am talking about a logical CAN.

The distinction is either it can or it cannot.

You say that you believe it cannot yet you are discussing a logical can in which it can. Only it can't.

By your logic, I can claim that gravity can be separated from matter.
Logically. Not really. Of course.
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But, it is possible to imagine a disembodied consciousness. And this is why consciousness is not a "property" of the brain, but something radically different from the brain, which is caused by the brain.
I think I see your core problem. Several questions for you:

What is a disembodied consciousness?
How do you interact with it?
Of what is it a property?
 
Huh? Can you give me a single example of something that is conceivable but logically impossible?

That something is conceivable doesn't say anything about whether it is true. But it does say something whether it is logical.

Hey again Jetlag. I have been following this thread but not posting in it, because frankly, I don't feel qualified to discuss neuroscience. And also Joe is doing a great job of carrying forth the discussion. But I wanted to ask you a few questions, because I'm a little confused about your point of view.

So you're saying that because "mind" and "brain" can concievably be different entities, this proves that they are logically separate? I was confused by this at first, because I thought by "logically separate" you meant that this proved that they were separate entities. But it seems like what you're actually saying is that this proves that it is *possible* that they are separate entities? In other words, you're trying to state that there is no obvious contradiction like there would be if we tried to claim that "roundness" could conceivably be separate from a ball. Have I interpreted what you are saying correctly?
 
First, it seems that you misunderstand my version of dualism.

I do not claim that the mind can exist seperately from the brain.
I am not claiming that the mind influences the brain.

What I do claim is that the mind and the brain are radically different "substances", "entities". One of them (the brain), perhaps, causes the other, but they are still fundamentally different in nature.

The nature of the mind is subjective. Nobody but you can experience your thoughts and feelings. Even if with neurobiology we will be able to know perfectly what one man thinks and feels, this won't be the same as experiencing his thoughts and feelings, which is impossible.
I can't experience the past either. I can't experience the core of the Earth or the center of a black hole. You have created an arbitrary category, "cannot experience" and applied it to a single thing, conscious thought, therefore you claim that thing is somehow not physical.

It doesn't fly.
 
AkuManiMani: I'm not going to reply tonight. I've been nursing a headache all day and I'm off to bed early. I'll try and find some time tomorrow to respond in depth. Just after a quick skim of your latest post, it does indeed help clarify. :)

Thats, okay. You've already provided lots of feedback for me to think on.

Feel better!
 
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Quiet the opposite.


I cannot imagine the existance of gravity without the existance of matter. It seems meaningless. Therefore, I can conclude that gravity is a property of matter.

On the other hand, I can conceive of minds existing without brains...

P-zombies are no more conceivable than the zombie universe I have described.

(And "p-zombies" is really just another way of casting the claim that minds are separate and independent entities rather than properties and functions of brains.)

In a p-zombie, the claim is that there is no mind, but all the outward evidence that we take for a "mind" is there (just as it would be in a normal person). That is, the p-zombie can say he has subjective consciousness, feels emotions, etc. The p-zombie's MRI and EEGs will look just like those of a regular person. If we give the p-zombie drugs or electrically stimulate appropriate spots on the brain, he'll respond just as a normal person would. Yet, you're asking us to accept that the p-zombie has no mind (or subjective experience) just by stipulation.

I can no more conceive of the existence of a p-zombie than I can a zombie universe that has no gravity (but gives all the same measurements as our universe).

It's an apt analogy. Why do you claim you conceive of one and not the other?

A disembodied mind--how does it get any sensory input (what with it having no sense organs)? (Surely you're not saying there can be such a thing as a mind with no way of sensing ANYTHING?) This disembodied mind has no hippocampus, a brain structure involved (and indispensible) in memory processes, so can this disembodied mind remember anything? (Not that it would have anything to remember, since it has no sensory inputs or motor outputs.)

Also, in a normal brain, we know that development and organization of brain structures depends on sensory input. For example, the primary visual cortex won't organize without visual input. So. . . does this disembodied mind understand imagery? Can it do any kind of visual processing (even though it has nothing to process)?

We also know beyond a doubt that certain brain structures are indispensible for language. We also know that our language capacity (another trait of the brain) allows us to acquire conventional language (especially at certain critical periods). We do this by hearing (or seeing, or at least feeling in the case of the deaf-blind) language. How can a disembodied mind know language?

If the language ability doesn't depend on the structures we know of (Broca's area and Wernicke's area for examples), then why is it that people with damage to those structures suffer aphasia? Does the mind just so happen, by coincidence lose language just when those areas are injured?

And what about all the other physical things that affect the mind? When you've had a few drinks, you actually experience a change in the subjective mental experience. (We call it "being drunk" or "intoxicated".) If the mind is a separate and independent entity, then why would it be affected by alcohol in this way?

How can general anaesthesia possibly work if our subjective experience is a separate entity from the brain?
 
Can you refer me to the specific criticism of the ontological argument that it relevant?
I just googled the words "Ontological Argument existence predicate" and got a boatload of pages that look like they all point out this flaw.

"logically separate" certainly doesn't mean "exists separately", but it means CAN exist separately. So I don't see your point.
Yes, in fact it does mean exactly that. For something to be separate, it must exist. If it doesn't exist separately, then it is not separate. (Please note, all the forms of the verb "to be" include the concept of "exist".)
 

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