Puppycow
Penultimate Amazing
N/M
And is something that those who want a total economic collapse because they think it will result in a 'better world with the old system gone" should think about. Severe depressions almost always give birth to wars .
Yes, but weren't people saving because rationing and the demands for war production meant there were relatively few consumer goods to purchase during the war?
Actually IIRC the UK finished paying that off a few years ago.Lend-lease. We're still paying you for it. There was very little in terms of repayment until 1945, and then you started shelling out for the Marshall Plan.
Actually IIRC the UK finished paying that off a few years ago.
But it wasn't the war per se that ended the depression in the US, it was the fact that the US was the only country left with a large intact industrial base after the war. This put the US in a dominant position for decades afterwards.
Had there been no post-war boom the debt from the war would have kept compiling, the depression may well have come right back.I think you're making the same mistake that Hans is; the depression was well over in the US by 1943. The postwar boom that followed the war is not "the end of the Depression."
Had there been no post-war boom the debt from the war would have kept compiling, the depression may well have come right back.
I wonder if a WWII type effort, in regards to the global ecology, might bring the economy around? Or is the violence required, to get folks moving?
I was thinking more of global heating; bad weather; rising sea-levels...a total package.
Originally Posted by Tailgater
16 million American worker bees went to war and about 400k+ didn't come back out of roughly 130 million people (about 40% of todays population). 1943 unemployment was under 2%. The war may not have been the root cause of the end, but it helped finish off the unemployment. See Drkitten link post 2.
Er...check your maths.
Steve
More or less. Even a fairly biased source admits that. Actually, a study of the real growth rates of the GDP suggests that from 1933-1941, the economy was already in a strong recovery (10% growth per year, which is simply phenomenal) but it hadn't hit the consumer level yet.
WWII is when the consumer finally got money into his or her pocket.
The problem. of course, is determining why.
Here's where the economists really start to differ. There are a lot of things that go into it.
* Unemployment dropped as the military sucked up all available manpower and then some.
* Federal spending shot way up.
* Investment in capital/production went up. People were saving
Perhaps most importantly,
* exports shot way up as the Allies bought huge amounts of "stuff" from us, whether that be food, oil, or munitions.
Hell, yes. But we need to spend it better (over the long term).
At the moment, it's still 1929, or maybe 1930. We've not yet seen the bottom (which historically happened in 1933) and there are some immediate issues (like the credit freeze) that need to be dealt with.
Once the credit freeze is dealt with, we are going to need to some capital investment of the sort that produces jobs and exports. While I support the Citibank bailout (because we need to unfreeze credit first), that's not going to produce jobs and exports by itself.
Do you mean that when wealth inequality was high, the poorest tended to have fewer resources? Or something else?Ever notice that the working man has usually had the hardest of times, throughout history, when the richest of us had the most money?
Do you mean that when wealth inequality was high, the poorest tended to have fewer resources? Or something else?
Something else.
Economic downturns tend to be correlated with high wealth inequality. Economic booms tend to be correlated with lower wealth inequality.
The cause/effect relationship is not clear.