Split Thread The validity of classical physics (split from: DWFTTW)

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And yet lower down the page you seem to describe the principle of equivalence very well. Funny how you keep doing that, flatly deny something one minute, then write almost an erudite piece to the opposite effect a moment later.
Maybe its due to knowing when it applies, and when not.

You seem not to have understood, or at least acknowledged or spoken to, my argument. They do not cancel out, I believe, because the force on them is proportional to the combined mass:
F = GmM / r2but the acceleration on each body is inversely proportional to its own mass:
a = F / m,
a' = F / M
Hence, for two mutually attracting masses of great difference, such as yourself and the Earth, when you fall, you accelerate considerably more than the Earth.
Same applies for the ratio of the two falling masses. The Earth is the common source of the much greater gravity. You don't need to include the Earth itself.
The forces are the same between the objects and the Earth.
If you were perhaps interested in displacement, it may be necessary to consider the Earth, but of course, if one mass pulls the Earth towards itself, it moves towards the the mass by an equal amount.

For two different masses falling towards the Earth, the difference will be less obvious, since their masses are less obviously different in most experimental situations. Do you suppose a star will fall into a black hole at the same rate as an equidistant orange? I haven't been corrected on this yet, though I have to say I'm not absolutely sure of it. I have a feeling that if I google I'll find actual experimental data confirming this.
There are no simple answers to questions of black holes. You did say you wanted c.m.? Otherwise, same as above.
You forgot to mention what happens to very fast mesons as they enter the atmosphere...

It sounds like you don't know how you'd decide.
It means that nature does not go about trying to fit itself into human systems of classification.

Yes, it sounds very much like you don't know what, in between "relative" and "absolute" acceleration might be, if you could "do that".
There is no need to make the distinction. Both are artificial. That is the point.

Brilliant.
I wrote about this myself not so long ago. Not particularly relevant here, but fine, we agree.
ETA: Oh no, it's actually a very good example of the different accelerations due to gravity, as I argue above. The big mass of the sun doesn't move as much as the Earth orbiting it.
But the Earth is falling, John. Why do your accelerometers work?

The "same goes for" it? What, acceleration orbits round its shared centre of mass? Absolute acceleration may be about to gain meaning, perhaps? Yea Dude, pass the Rizlas. I think you might be on to something.:rolleyes:
Same as above. The Earth is falling towards the sun. Newton himself used this way of decribing orbit.

"Einstein liked to say that the Moon is "out there" even when no one is observing it.
Realism in the sense used by physicists does not directly equate to realism in metaphysics.[1] The latter is the claim that there is in some sense a mind-independent world."
Er, no thanks. Post that on Philosophy & Religion maybe.
Not speaking for Einstein this time, John? You do stress the role of the conscious observer. A fashionable idea, I think.

Shall I wikki wikki, or will you?
You.

This is all rather garbled, but seems to be refuting the P of Equivalence, y'know, that Einstein thing you described almost perfectly later? You even pose the wrong conditions in this - "stationary in a gravitational field" is not the condition, it is accelerating in a gravitational field that is indestinguishable from zero g.
There is no gravitational field that is indistinguishable from zero-g. It is distinguishable in free-fall or not.

Yes, plummeting towards the Earth. I criticised the idea that we can't tell the difference earlier, but by considering visual reference outside. You can't tell if the force on your arm is due to being in a vomit comet or out in the depths of space with no gravity, except by knowing that some other way. But as you have shown, you don't understand the importance or purpose of taking away information and asking what can be discerned. To you it just seems a cruel trick, I suppose.
Not a cruel trick, but pointless. You can ignore all knowledge by anesthetising yourself for the duration of the experiment.
To raise your arm, you must do work against gravity, falling or not. That is detectable.
You can say there is no force on an object in free fall, but that force reappears as soon as it is opposed. That is not the case with zero-g. Zero is zero.
There is stress along any body that is in free fall. That too is detectable. The ISS hull is stressed by the same forces.

That's not what more reliable sources are telling me. When I say "more reliable", I mean ones who wouldn't suggest you "pour a glass of water" in either scenario. How? How do you even set that experiment up?!
You can do it on the vomit comet. The resulting stream will break up, and let you know that you are being accelerated. The drops will be separated by displacements that will not happen in zero-g.
Motion in such an environment can be misleading. You move a little, but to the outside observer, your actions are stretched over a much greater distance. This has consequences for the amount of apparent work expended. You don't appreciate those effects from the inside.

Acknowledged already. Nil points. That's like saying that the cart can tell the difference when it's on the treadmill because it can see the television.
Ridiculous. There is no other information necessary. You are building castles in the air.

Two standard mass-sensing accelerometers, one on each end of a bar. Spun in zero-g, they would show a constant output as a result of that acceleration.
In free-fall towards the Earth, each acclerometer will either be moving with gravity or against it, with each revolution. Easily detected.
 
Do you suppose a star will fall into a black hole at the same rate as an equidistant orange? I haven't been corrected on this yet, though I have to say I'm not absolutely sure of it. I have a feeling that if I google I'll find actual experimental data confirming this.
You have not been paying very close attention, have you, John? The experimental evidence is right here. Unless the star were not rotating, the answer is that they would be the same because neither will fall into the black hole! We already have the experimental results showing that an orange will remain stationary on a belt, courtesy of the magnificent humber. If the star has any rotation to start out, then it will spin faster and faster as it approaches the black hole -- this is a first semester physics example, usually illustrated by a figure skater who draws her arms in, and increases her rate of pirouette sans fouetté. The same principle applies, whatever is pulled in, spins faster. And thus the star will reach a balance point where it is spinning fast enough that it remains motionless in space, just like an orange on a supermarket belt. Or a cart on a treadmill. (Which is not a kite!)
 
It's basically that; an infinite number of harmonic functions superimposed.


Yes. This is good and is getting to the essence of the matter. The treadmill belt is a continuous rotating structure which has harmonic motion. The wheel of the cart also has harmonic motion. The belt revolves at a fixed frequency (rpm) while the wheel rpm is variable. That leaves open the possibility for resonance and resonance effects that would not exist with the cart running on the street. So, even if the cart is faster than the treadmill, there is no reason to think it is faster than the wind. If that is all the claim is based on, it is based on nothing at all!
 
Christoph=schrøder=humber?

Christoph do this resonance also happens if the treadmill is 100000 km long?
 
But wouldn't that simply be the sum of the gravitational forces upon you? There is in fact no difference when you are on the earth's surface: there is still the moon's gravity taking part in your weight. You are in a gravitational field, and its various sources cannot be discerned necessarily. The same is true inside the earth - your weight is the result of all the gravity of the mass around you and the moon and sun, etc. What kind of reference frame do you mean weight should be specified in relation to, Michael? A rate of acceleration? A velocity vector? I don't understand. I thought maybe I did reading that jsd website, but it was just on the edge of my comprehension and a bit beyond.

But what is the sum of gravitational forces on you? Answer: it depends on the frame of reference. When you're on Earth, you use the frame of reference of the bit of surface of Earth that you're standing on. This is perfectly logical and natural: we take it for granted. When you're on the Moon, you use the similar frame of reference of the bit of Moon surface you're standing on. Note that these frames of reference are not the same: If you were to try to use your original Earth frame of reference to calculate your weight when on the Moon, you'd be in for some complicated calculations.

You ask: "what kind of reference frame do you mean weight should be specified in relation to?". Short answer: a coordinate system in both space and time. For more complete answers, keep reading up on reference frames in the links I already gave. This thread revolves a lot around the concept of reference frames: we have all (well, almost all) agreed that there is no such thing as absolute velocity. Velocity is defined as "the rate of change of position", or distance in a particular direction over time. That's what you'll see in simple textbooks or Wikipedia. It's fine for everyday use, but when things get tricky we need to make our definition more precise. So velocity is in fact "the rate of change of position as measured in the chosen reference frame". For weight it's the same thing: the standard, simple definition is fine for everyday use, but if we start talking about about "weightlessness" or "apparent weight", we need that extra precision. There is no absolute reference frame from which to measure absolute gravitational force, any more than there is an absolute frame from which to measure absolute velocity.
 
And on the page you referenced we can read:
As I think John Freestone said a lot earlier, this thread is supposedly about classical physics, (whatever that is!) but you seem to have decided to move past using Newton's law of universal gravitation and move on to using one of the other versions of "g" given on that page - one that is more in keeping with the ideas of General Relativity.​


It doesn't matter which definition of gravity is used, it's always being measured with respect to a certain reference frame. That's made very clear on the page I linked to.

I would have thought that Newton's law was perfectly adequate for what we've been talking about. Anyway, apart from how you want to define "g", the definitions of "weight" that we've been arguing about are all essentially the same.

I wouldn't say that the definitions are the same. It was indeed you who wanted to bring some more precision into the argument when you said:

There are definitely some very ambiguous and potentially confusing terms "floating around" this whole area. Taken being "weightless" for example. [...]In other words, our "real weight" is the force exerted on our body by gravity, and that force doesn't disappear when we start to free-fall, or start orbiting the Earth.

I still have a problem with the term "real weight". Here's a question:

The Earth has a mass of 5.9742 × 1024 kilograms. How much does it weigh?​
 
It doesn't matter which definition of gravity is used, it's always being measured with respect to a certain reference frame. That's made very clear on the page I linked to.
Michael, let me first try to make sure that I have understand you correctly, and perhaps also clarify some of my own earlier comments, before possibly attempting to address your other points.

First, the page you linked to seems to be a site belonging to one particular person, John S. Denker. From other material on the site and elsewhere it sounds like he is strictly more of a pilot than an academic or physicist, although of course that also doesn't mean what he has said is "wrong"! No doubt he is very well qualified. However I did also notice a comment he made here: http://www.av8n.com/physics/weight.htm#main-apparent

9. I find it unhelpful to define or recognize any distinction between “true weight” and “apparent weight”. Weight is weight. Let’s just call it the weight. If the weight relative to one accelerated reference frame is different from the weight relative to another, so be it. The situation is symmetrical; there is no basis for deciding which weight is “true” and which is “apparent”. Even if you could decide that one frame is “true” and the other only “apparent”, what are you going to do when there are three mutually-accelerated frames?
To me, this reads as if the writer has decided on a particular interpretation of weight that he prefers rather than this necessarily being widely accepted elsewhere. Perhaps I'm wrong about this also, but a few quick searches for phrases like "weight is relative to frame of reference" turned up that same site, but not much else I could see. I only looked briefly though so perhaps I just haven't looked hard enough. However, if you have any other links to other locations giving the same kind of definition I'd like to be able to read them also to get a better overview and confirmation that this isn't just "one way of viewing it".

Note also how he refers to "true weight" and "apparent weight". When I used "real weight" earlier I was simply doing that to make a distinction from "apparent weight", and it would seem that his use of "true weight" was meant in the same sense that I used "real weight". I wasn't trying to suggest "real weight" is some kind of official terminology, or preferable, etc. Wikipedia also uses "actual weight" on the page for "apparent weight"!

Anyway, you have said quite adamantly that weight must always be measured with respect to some frame of reference. But even the site you've give to support that view allows that there are different ways you could derive the "g" when we calculate weight using W = mg. The first option he lists is based on Newton's universal law of gravitation. That formula doesn't depend on any frame of reference and it gives you a force. If you divide the force by the mass of the object in question we get one version of "g" (acceleration due to gravity). You might not like that approach but it certainly seems to at least one possible definition and a naive reading of wikipedia and many other pages on the net (and many textbooks also I would suggest) doesn't seem to disagree or even suggest anything further needs to be considered.

Back to your viewpoint: can you please confirm you are saying the correct approach is to use the ""E-gravity" "g" as given below?

E-gravity is denoted gE and is associated with the total acceleration of the reference frame, relative to a nearby freely-falling object. In accordance with the equivalence principle, it does not distinguish among the possible contributions to this acceleration.The E in E-gravity stands for Einstein, since Einstein’s general theory of relativity strongly emphasizes the equivalence principle, emphasizes freely-falling reference frames, and treats on an equal footing any and all contributions to the acceleration of an accelerated reference frame.
My interpretation of this is basically that he (and you) are saying that the correct way to calculate weight is to essentially use a value for "g" that is the same as what you'd get using Newton's f=Gm1m2/d2 (giving g=Gm/d2 for an object at distance d from another object with mass m) but also add on any other accelerations that the mass is experiencing relative to something in freefall "nearby".

In other words (and this is copied almost directly from another forum I was reading), your view is that weight should be defined as the net force required to make an object accelerate at a rate equal to the local free fall acceleration. Is this right? I would have said that was what wikipedia, etc., call "apparent weightWP".

To sum up, I'm not really particularly concerned one way or the other because as I said earlier, it seems to me that "weight" is often likely to cause confusion rather than clarity, and so it's probably easier to just avoid it altogether whenever possible and talk in terms of mass and force and so forth instead. However, I was also saying that what I was taught at school, and what I had read (in various locations more recently) all seemed to confirm that W=mg was "correct", and with a very straightforward understanding of what that "g" stood for. Using a definition that is more like the "apparent weightWP" (essentially same as yours I think?) would suit me just fine also if that was in fact widely accepted - in many ways it's tidier because it fits more closely with terms like "weightlessness" and so on. Having said all that, I still don't see all that much evidence "out there" to suggest that your definition is in fact the officially accepted "best practice" version!

Perhaps we need a poll? Or maybe someone can edit the wikipedia entry for weightWP and then we can try to judge from the response what the "truth" of the matter really is! :D

ETA: What's your opinion of this blog post: http://blog.dotphys.net/2008/09/gravity-weightlessness-and-apparent-weight/ ?
 
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I think I agree with Clive. I am not sure there are any reason to define weight at all. The only reason I can see know is in comparison to the force felt in steady state, for example, "It feels like your weight are twice when the elevator is about to stop".

The easiest frame to work with is often one attached to the object in some way. I can't see any reason to use an accelerating frame so I can "get ride of g" for systems that interact with the earth in some way. A frame that fast "disappears" from the system is not that easy to work with I believe (I have never done it).

edit: We never feel gravity, we only feel the forces that oppose the gravity force.
 
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But what is the sum of gravitational forces on you? Answer: it depends on the frame of reference. When you're on Earth, you use the frame of reference of the bit of surface of Earth that you're standing on. This is perfectly logical and natural: we take it for granted. When you're on the Moon, you use the similar frame of reference of the bit of Moon surface you're standing on. Note that these frames of reference are not the same: If you were to try to use your original Earth frame of reference to calculate your weight when on the Moon, you'd be in for some complicated calculations.

You ask: "what kind of reference frame do you mean weight should be specified in relation to?". Short answer: a coordinate system in both space and time. For more complete answers, keep reading up on reference frames in the links I already gave. This thread revolves a lot around the concept of reference frames: we have all (well, almost all) agreed that there is no such thing as absolute velocity. Velocity is defined as "the rate of change of position", or distance in a particular direction over time. That's what you'll see in simple textbooks or Wikipedia. It's fine for everyday use, but when things get tricky we need to make our definition more precise. So velocity is in fact "the rate of change of position as measured in the chosen reference frame". For weight it's the same thing: the standard, simple definition is fine for everyday use, but if we start talking about about "weightlessness" or "apparent weight", we need that extra precision. There is no absolute reference frame from which to measure absolute gravitational force, any more than there is an absolute frame from which to measure absolute velocity.
I see it quite differently, Michael. I see that Clive has given a more technical reply and some links. I haven't followed them, and I can't hope to give as much technical information, but here's my take on it. It's logic is almost the other way round. Yes, velocities are relative to a frame of reference. But what that means is that your absolute velocity (as if nothing else existed anywhere, or you refused to look for it) is meaningless. You have to consider two objects (or the object you are trying to give the velocity of and a sort of nominal-object as frame if you like to think of it that way). With gravity, it does not seem to be the same. At a particular point there just is whatever gravitational field there is. Why I asked you to say what it was you mean by a frame of reference for gravity is because the term suggests a velocity, but you might also mean something like a particular acceleration or a particular gravitation, or a position. It seems from your reply that you are thinking of it as a position, but that seems untenable to me.

It seems like saying that you could not say what the density of a material is at a certain position because it is different somewhere else. Your example of how difficult it would be to calculate your weight on the Moon by reference to the Earth seems to me to actually support the idea that your weight is NOT dependent on your frame of reference. Different velocities are easy to calculate from different frames, and they are frame-dependent. I would say that they are calculable from different frames because they are frame dependent. The only way of calculating your weight on the moon by reference to Earth gravity is to arbitrarily specify a value for Earth gravity, or measure it somewhere, measure your weight at your location on the Moon, and then do a double-negative. You weigh whatever you weigh where you are without calculation, it seems to me, just as there are a certain number of atoms in the volume of space around you.

This also seems to tie in with the view of gravity as an acceleration, and the absoluteness of acceleration (i.e. its frame-independence, its sameness across all frames). To know what your velocity is you need to refer to some other body or imaginary body and its related change of distance over time, but your acceleration is identical from either frame. That is why, just from gravitational-accelerational reference in the metal box, you can't tell which is which, but you can have an absolute measure on your accelerometer. You can't avoid it. It's a function of your mass*, like its density. {ETA * qualified below, your mass and other masses}

The other question of how much a planet weighs is trickier, and points to a kind of relativity, I admit. Some mass, it would seem, is hard to imagine being in a gravitational field without reference to some other mass. But perhaps it makes sense to think of it like density again. "Some mass" is a weird idea, actually. If mass is more than unitary mass, a kind of "point mass" alone in the universe, then its various parts cause gravitational forces on its other parts...and what the heck a point mass might be like, I've no idea {ETA: a proton?}. Similarly, density makes no sense with only one particle. It requires a relationship to other particles, other volumes of mass, but its absolute value is not dependent on the value anywhere else, only over the volume in which we count the mass.

So the net gravitational force, as you asked first above, isn't a mystery and isn't dependent on a frame of reference. It depends only on the position and magnitude of the mass you include in the volume of space around you, if you want to be mathematical about it. If you want to be empirical, it just is whatever it is. That can't be said about velocity. I suppose you might take an average of velocities of bodies around you w.r.t. yourself, and use that as your reference, but I have a hunch that turns out to mean you're not moving, and there's no empirical measurement of velocity at a position. Accelerometers yes, velocitometers no.

ETA: the other reason I asked you to specify what kind of thing your reference frame is is because it might be an acceleration. I'm not anywhere near understanding the implications of accelerating reference frames, so I'll leave that.

ETA: Another way to say what I mean by absolute weight is that you could calculate precisely what you would weigh on the Earth at a particular location and time. All you need to know is where all the mass is that you want to include in your calculation at that time. Whether you do that calculation on the Earth or the Moon or Jupiter doesn't matter. What you weigh in those locations doesn't matter either.
 
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That leaves open the possibility for resonance and resonance effects that would not exist with the cart running on the street. So, even if the cart is faster than the treadmill, there is no reason to think it is faster than the wind. If that is all the claim is based on, it is based on nothing at all!

What utter nonsense. Treadmill belts are very smooth and stable - far more so than any surface you're likely to find outside. Even if they were there, "resonance effects" are going to reduce the friction between the wheels and the belt and decrease the cart's performance, not increase it. And why can't there be a resonance effect with the cart running on the street? Just make it bumpy with a certain period.
 
With gravity, it does not seem to be the same. At a particular point there just is whatever gravitational field there is.

That's incorrect. There is no way to distinguish a gravitational field from an acceleration field at a point. They are identical in every respect.

And actually even given the field over an extended region, the best you can do is determine that it is not only caused by acceleration (by measuring gradients). But I'm not aware of any well-defined procedure to distinguish which parts of it are due to acceleration and which are gravitational - I don't think that concept even makes sense.

Let's consider the statement I made earlier, which I think confused you - that "acceleration is absolute". First, turn off gravity completely - we're doing our experiments in intergalactic space, and none of the objects involved are massive enough to have any detectable gravitational effect. Then the statement is clear - pick any inertial frame, and call that acceleration equals zero. Any such frame is a rest frame for acceleration, and any frame with non-zero acceleration can be distinguished from it.

Now if you insist on thinking about gravity, replace "inertial" with "freely falling" and the same thing is true, again modulo spatial gradients.
 
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Christoph do this resonance also happens if the treadmill is 100000 km long?

It might if it were just a tad over 40075 km (but we should ask TAD) :)


Humber has been prolific over the last few pages but the random stream of words has little coherence most of the time. However, here is one concept that was even repeated and since it had already been questioned I don't need to wait for another second to add it to the list of...

Where humber is wrong

  • "If in free-fall inside an aircraft, the simple act of lifting your arm and measuring the force, will tell you that you are in a gravitational field." #3255

  • "If you are stationary in a gravitational field, then you will do work against that field should you raise your arm. That does not change if you jump from a table, or fall in an enclosed elevator." #3327


The second statement would technically be true under a consideration of the separate forces. But the simple experiment of the first statement precludes such an interpretation.
 
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There is no gravitational field that is indistinguishable from zero-g. It is distinguishable in free-fall or not.

Two standard mass-sensing accelerometers, one on each end of a bar. Spun in zero-g, they would show a constant output as a result of that acceleration.
In free-fall towards the Earth, each acclerometer will either be moving with gravity or against it, with each revolution. Easily detected.

Humber's "test" for free-fall in a gravity field vs zero acceleration outside of a gravity field qualifies as another statement where he is wrong about the physics involved. If the instruments are sensitive enough and are far enough apart, they can detect the gravity field's gradient if held in position across that gradient.

Spinning them makes absolutely no sense, unless humber is referring to a slow reorientation of the paired accelerometers to figure out the direction of the gravity field's source. Which he isn't.

Another humberism to add to the list, Dan. Looks like it may be part of the subset that you just posted.
 
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What utter nonsense. Treadmill belts are very smooth and stable - far more so than any surface you're likely to find outside. Even if they were there, "resonance effects" are going to reduce the friction between the wheels and the belt and decrease the cart's performance, not increase it. And why can't there be a resonance effect with the cart running on the street? Just make it bumpy with a certain period.
I always find my car stops dead when my mobile phone rings, especially if it's set to vibrate. :rolleyes:
 
They are from Luce Irigaray;
' E=mc^2 is a sexed equation...it privileges the speed of light over other (less masculine) speeds that are vitally necessary to us '.

'...the privileging of solid over fluid mechanics, and indeed the inability of science to deal with turbulent flow at all '

Now, she is a cast-iron idiot and a feminist. What is your excuse for showing your petty-coat?


[latex] \begin {eqnarray} E & = & mc^2 ( 1 - v^2/ c^2 ) ^ {- 1/2} [/latex]

You just have to acknowledge your feminine side (v) ;)



That statement is short sighted. If
[latex]

\begin{eqnarray}
E &=& mc^2


[/latex]
is considered "sexed" why is c "privledged"?

In fact, c is a slave to the meduim he travels in. No faster, no slower than she allows.
 
me said:
With gravity, it does not seem to be the same. At a particular point there just is whatever gravitational field there is.

That's incorrect. There is no way to distinguish a gravitational field from an acceleration field at a point. They are identical in every respect.
I'm not sure you understood. I didn't specifically say this, but I ignored that equivalence for the purpose of considering gravity at a point. If you like, "at a particular point there just is whatever gravitational-accelerational field there is". This was to distinguish it from a relative measure of the overall forces or acceleration due to gravity and other factors implied in Michael's view of weight as relative to a particular frame, which he defined in terms of a coordinate system and time. At one point, I think I said "gravitational-accelerational" so as not to demand their difference or separability.

And actually even given the field over an extended region, the best you can do is determine that it is not only caused by acceleration (by measuring gradients). But I'm not aware of any well-defined procedure to distinguish which parts of it are due to acceleration and which are gravitational - I don't think that concept even makes sense.
Not disputed.

Let's consider the statement I made earlier, which I think confused you - that "acceleration is absolute". First, turn off gravity completely - we're doing our experiments in intergalactic space, and none of the objects involved are massive enough to have any detectable gravitational effect. Then the statement is clear - pick any inertial frame, and call that acceleration equals zero. Any such frame is a rest frame for acceleration, and any frame with non-zero acceleration can be distinguished from it.
I'm working on making sense of this, relating it to another method of expressing "acceleration is absolute". I wrote you an essay with mostly questions, and then decided I'd kick myself up the butt and try to work out some of the answers instead.

However, I suggested to Michael that my view of weight as absolute fitted with equivalence, because you at least said that acceleration was absolute, and acceleration is indistinguishable from gravity. It would be bizarre, it seems to me, if acceleration were absolute and gravity relative. Do you have any opinions about weight?

Now if you insist on thinking about gravity, replace "inertial" with "freely falling" and the same thing is true, again modulo spatial gradients.
Yikes, I'll have to get back to you.:)
 
<snip, the math went all wonky>

....is considered "sexed" why is c "privledged"?

In fact, c is a slave to the meduim he travels in. No faster, no slower than she allows.
I think you might have missed where humber said "Now, she is a cast-iron idiot and a feminist."

Incidentally, I say you don't have to be a feminist to be an idiot, but it helps.:D
 
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[latex] \begin {eqnarray} E & = & mc^2 ( 1 - v^2/ c^2 ) ^ {- 1/2} [/latex]

You just have to acknowledge your feminine side (v) ;)



That statement is short sighted. If
[latex]

\begin{eqnarray}
E &=& mc^2


[/latex]
is considered "sexed" why is c "privledged"?

In fact, c is a slave to the meduim he travels in. No faster, no slower than she allows.

Gee, do you think so?
 
Humber's "test" for free-fall in a gravity field vs zero acceleration outside of a gravity field qualifies as another statement where he is wrong about the physics involved. If the instruments are sensitive enough and are far enough apart, they can detect the gravity field's gradient if held in position across that gradient.

I already made that point, but this works in a uniform field.

Spinning them makes absolutely no sense, unless humber is referring to a slow reorientation of the paired accelerometers to figure out the direction of the gravity field's source. Which he isn't.
It works on the ground, so it will in the elevator. Perhaps like this, but this was done well before this patent. Zero-g is not free-fall.
http://www.faqs.org/patents/app/20080236282
Plenty of others.


Another humberism to add to the list, Dan. Looks like it may be part of the subset that you just posted.

No, I imagine he is now busy burying the dead bird.
You are wrong in both cases, Mender. I may start a list.
 
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