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Split Thread The validity of classical physics (split from: DWFTTW)

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Specify the axes. I might, I won't ever make as significant a contribution as Ascher Shapiro though, and nor will you. Anything I come up with will be based on the basic foundations which he elucidates with unusual clarity. It would save us all so much time if you would acquiesce and deign to be educated on the basic premises before vomiting your vitriolic incorrect postulations.

Why not produce your own drawings and how they apply to the question at hand, rather than relying on information that anybody can Google? High minded words about others says little about what you know, nor is torrent of inappropriate words, a substitute for skill.
Still nothing concrete, I see.
 
Why not produce your own drawings and how they apply to the question at hand, rather than relying on information that anybody can Google? High minded words about others says little about what you know, nor is torrent of inappropriate words, a substitute for skill.
Still nothing concrete, I see.

Specify a "concrete" question.
 
Yes Ross, we wrote extensively of reference frames on the earths surface being inertial which may have lead to some confusion because those reference frames were only dealing with horizontal motion. When in a gravitational field you have to account for the forces created by that field.

The inside the free falling elevator car can be considered an inertial reference frame because the acceleration due to the gravitational field is canceled by the acceleration of the car itself.
That is contradictory. How can the car cancel anything without exerting a force? The only role the car can play, is to shut out the external environment. An object falling in a vacuum is in the same situation, but without the car.

This free falling reference frame cannot really be used outside the elevator car. Even inside the car, there are limits. If you had a very sensitive accelerometer it would not read 0 everywhere.
The object too would be itself subject to that.

Take a look at spork's drawings and subtract the accelerations on the earth's surface from the accelerations due to the accelerating car. This will be the car in free fall accelerated by earths gravity. What you would have is a point near the middle of the car (specifically at the car's center of gravity) with 0 acceleration and everywhere else will feel a force pushing it away from that center point.
Centre of gravity is notional. It is a simplifying assumption, and not a 'real' point within the car!. That arguement makes its point by first assuming a falsehood to be true, so it can then be denied. Pushing away from the centre? By what means? I think there will be gravitational attraction between the bodies themselves

In extreme cases such as orbiting too close to a neutron star, those residual forces can tear a ship apart or or squish the occupants against the outer wall of their General Products hull.
Yes, fiction, like the rest.
 
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Even inside the car, there are limits. If you had a very sensitive accelerometer it would not read 0 everywhere.

What you would have is a point near the middle of the car (specifically at the car's center of gravity) with 0 acceleration and everywhere else will feel a force pushing it away from that center point. General Products hull.

This being because of the gravity gradient of the Planets field?
 
Specify a "concrete" question.

Load lines for a chute or balloon or other airborne object, and the same for the driven object. A skater and parachute have been used, but you can chose another combination. You should show how you derive the terminal velocity.
 
This being because of the gravity gradient of the Planets field?
Name a planet that does not have a gravitational gradient.
Even if there is no gradient, you can still view the planet as having an event horizon. A long object introduced headfirst, would be stretched by the gravitational force. By the time the tail of the object is within the field, the head will have been subjected to a longer time under acceleration, so the object would be stressed. That initial strain will remain in that object (stored as elastic energy), while it continues to accelerate.
 
Load lines for a chute or balloon or other airborne object, and the same for the driven object. A skater and parachute have been used, but you can chose another combination. You should show how you derive the terminal velocity.

Now that you state a clearer problem, it does make some of what you say make more sense. The relevance is still dubious. Again, it comes down to clear unambiguous statement of terms and conditions. Now that there is a problem I can enjoy working it.
 
Name a planet that does not have a gravitational gradient.
Even if there is no gradient, you can still view the planet as having an event horizon. A long object introduced headfirst, would be stretched by the gravitational force. By the time the tail of the object is within the field, the head will have been subjected to a longer time under acceleration, so the object would be stressed. That initial strain will remain in that object (stored as elastic energy), while it continues to accelerate.

Wrong again humber. In physics the event horizon is a definite distance from the center of mass of a black hole. It has no meaning outside of that usage. You do not enter into a planets gravitational gradient, you are always in it. If a planet is sufficiently far away you can ignore its gravitational field, but it is always there.
 
John, it's quite simple. Sometimes we don't use an inertial reference frame to discuss motion. Since we live in an accelerating world, we tend to use a reference frame that is also being accelerated at 9.8 m s-2 away from the earths center. From our accelerating reference frame, we describe the motion of a ball tossed into the air as being accelerated by gravity instead of the reality that we are being accelerated towards the free floating ball by the repulsive force of the ground we stand on.


However, I feel that from the classical perspective, as wikipedia agrees, there is no acceleration for a body stationary on the earth, but when it falls due to gravity it accelerates with g, which is even called "the acceleration due to gravity". From a classical perspective and a chosen (Earth) frame, the elevator can be seen and measured moving faster over time by that amount.
...
Yet the link to instructions on using one discusses adding -9.8 m/s/s to get the "true acceleration".



That's a confusing term. In fact they are talking about the acceleration with respect to the frame of reference of the Earth. If we were using the accelerometer on the Moon, we'd need to add -1.6 m/ s2 to get the "true" acceleration at the moons' surface. If we were using it on Jupiter, we'd need to add -25.9 m/s2. We need to make these different adjustments because the frame of reference of the surface of a planet is not an inertial frame.

But wait a minute: didn't we say that a reasonably small section of the surface of the earth could be considered to be an inertial frame? Well yes, we did: it was in fact a cheat, a crafty manoeuvre to serve our purposes (I wonder what Humber will say to that...). We can only consider the place where we're standing on Earth to define an inertial frame if we include gravity as a "fictitious force". Oh dear! I'm not going to go into a big explanation of fictitious forces here: click on the link if you wish. In fact the surface of the earth qualifies as a constantly accelerating reference frame, whereas an elevator in free fall, whether it is near the surface of the earth, in orbit around the earth, in a tunnel through the earth or somewhere in deep space, defines an inertial frame of reference: throw a ball in it and it will continue in the same direction at the same speed until it hits something (Newton's 1st law). If the elevators are identical and the ball is thrown in the same way in each elevator, its trajectory will be identical in each elevator. Throw a ball in an elevator parked at the surface of some planet and it will describe a particular parabola. Depending on the gravitational field of the planet in question, an identical ball thrown with the same direction and force will not describe the same parabola: you have a way of distinguishing between different non-inertial frames. There is no way to distinguish between one inertial frame and another (principle of Relativity).

So the straight dope is here: when we're talking about the "frame of the ground", the "frame of the treadmill" or the "frame of the wind" we are not talking about real inertial frames in the strict sense. We can say that they are inertial frames that all have the same fictitious force of 1 g, or we can say that they are non-inertial frames that are all accelerating upwards at the same rate. For the Newtonian discussion, it's best to stick with the idea that they are inertial frames with an identical fictitious force in each frame. Since the force is the same in each frame, we can consider all these frames to be equivalent just as we can consider all real inertial frames to be equivalent.

I don't agree with some statements made by Dan_O, and Michael_C much earlier, concerning accelerometers, gravity, and inertial frames of reference. Overall I think John Freestone had a better grip on the correct interpretation - although I'm also saying this after catching up on multiple pages of posts, plus John may have changed his position somewhat more recently.

For what it is worth, I don't see any problem with the Earth and it's gravitational field being part of the picture when you're using an (approximate) inertial reference frame that is at rest with the surface of the planet. The effect of gravitational fields on masses is part of Newton's legacy and those are real forces. You simply take that into account along with other real forces.

The real problem with an inertial frame of reference at rest w.r.t. the earth's surface at some point is that the Earth is rotating on its axis, and also around the sun, and so on. Those rotations means that various fictitious forces enter into the picture (if you look closely enough and over long enough time periods, etc.). However, if the Earth wasn't rotating on it's axis and also wasn't rotating around a star, etc., then we could have a very good inertial frame of reference "fixed to the surface" at some point all the while continuing to include gravity and its effects on carts, air, etc. As it is, for the cart and treadmill scenario those fictitious forces are small enough to be ignored. We aren't all that interested in the effects of gravity because what we are concerned with are mainly the movements and forces parallel to the surface, but having gravity there doesn't actually disqualify "the surface" from being an inertial frame of reference.

The wikipedia article on accelerometersWP clearly states their purpose is to measure acceleration (rate of change of velocity with respect to time!) due to non-gravitational sources. The fact that an accelerometer indicates '1g' upwards when it is at rest on the surface of the Earth is simply reflecting the fact that it can't tell the difference between the real force exerted by gravity, and the fictitious force it is designed to detect if it was in fact being accelerated at 1g. In other words, as far as the accelerometer is concerned, it 'thinks' it is being accelerated 'upwards' at 1g (9.8 ms-2). However to get the correct actual acceleration you would have to make an allowance for the Earth's gravity, and then of course you've get a value very close to zero.

This seems much more natural and in line with other sources than what I get from reading Dan_O and Michael_C's earlier explanations to John Freestone, although you can obviously look at a lot of this from different perspectives and still "make sense of it".
 
However, assuming your "reality" is right, then my objection to Michael's assertion is answered. It does, however, seem a very sudden jump he made from c.m. to the walls of a building accelerating upwards, yet not getting anywhere, past a non-accelerating elevator. I'd have just mentioned it in passing, you know, like "according to Einstein..." so we knew what the new game rules were.

Once again, my "assertion" was not "the elevator is not accelerating". Here's what I said:

Mender's replies are, of course, correct: in free fall with no air drag you will experience no acceleration forces, regardless of your distance from the earth.

You will indeed experience no forces. The people inside the zero-g flight don't feel any force on themselves when they are in the free fall part of the flight. In fact they are accelerating towards the earth, but if they close their eyes they have no way of telling in which direction they are accelerating: they don't feel the acceleration.

To go back to the original question, imagine putting an accelerometer such as described here in the following situations:

a) orbiting around the Earth
b) orbiting around the Moon
c) orbiting around Jupiter
d) in free fall in a vacuum at the surface of the Earth
e) in free fall near the surface of the Moon
f) floating in outer space light years away from any stars

For extra precision this time, I'll add the information that the accelerometer is not spinning.

In all the above situations, the accelerometer will measure zero acceleration.

g) Place it on the surface of the earth and it will read 9.8 M/S2 upwards
h) Place it on the surface of the Moon and it will read 1.6 M/S2 upwards

Does anyone (apart from Humber) dispute this?
 
Once again, my "assertion" was not "the elevator is not accelerating". Here's what I said:
Mender's replies are, of course, correct: in free fall with no air drag you will experience no acceleration forces, regardless of your distance from the earth.
Michael, my apologies. I'm afraid I may well have mixed up your statements about the situation with those of others. I read your last post and intended to reply, but this has been my first opportunity to do so. I regret that this might have ended up looking like a criticism of your point of view (I guess it was, since I may have mistaken what that was), then, when others gave replies before you had time that were clearly from the GR POV, I did get rather irritated about that shift from classical mechanics, as I have probably said enough times to bore the pants off everyone by now. So the whole thing has got very complicated. I agree with Clive that we can describe the happenings of the universe according to different theories, and I just find the m.c. version perfectly adequate for the purposes. I would have to go back and read your stuff again, or discuss it more to be sure, but it seems you are doing just that.

A great deal of these discussions of forces and motion and acceleration suffer because of our human language and interpretation of things, as I think I intimated earlier. We say things like "There is a force, and that causes acceleration of a body according to its mass", which puts a causal relationship between force (as Clive said, after wikipedia, "real") and the effect, the acceleration of a body. As we see from the following:

You will indeed experience no forces. The people inside the zero-g flight don't feel any force on themselves when they are in the free fall part of the flight. In fact they are accelerating towards the earth, but if they close their eyes they have no way of telling in which direction they are accelerating: they don't feel the acceleration.
I agree with that (now I've read what you're saying more carefully!), but it points to that problem of words. Here we are focusing on what someone feels and what they can deduce from it. It makes sense to say that we feel our weight only because of the resistance of the ground, the normal force, and hence when we fall, we don't feel our weight, we don't feel the force of gravity. However, in many mechanics explanations of situations, we talk about balanced forces, gravity and the normal force, for instance, resulting in a body not experiencing or feeling any force, and, when we take the ground away, the body now accelerates because it experiences or feels the force of gravity. Which of these linguistic descriptions we wish to put on the giddy, sick feeling is up to us. You start that by saying you won't feel the gravitational force, and end it by saying you won't feel the acceleration. That's a bit odd. You could say (as humber has argued above perhaps) that our guts slopping about and the liquid in our ear canals slopping about is our body experiencing acceleration, feeling acceleration. And going back to the schoolboy physics again, our guts and every part of us is accelerating because it "experiences" an unbalanced force.

I don't pretend to understand GR, but I think there is a hint of what it's saying in the way we neutralize these ideas against each other. In the fixed lift (British-English for elevator), I can say that I feel gravity. When it falls, I can say that I don't feel gravity, because I'm kind of "giving in to it", going with it, allowing myself to be accelerated by it. Hence the equivalence of acceleration and gravity. I'm not sure how far the equivalence goes in reality, or what reality is (shall we describe all this in terms of string theory and QM, I don't know), but it all makes perfect sense to say that we read our accelerometers and adjust for gravity, because they can't tell that they are not accelerating, and just know that there's a force on their springs or whatever.

To go back to the original question, imagine putting an accelerometer such as described here in the following situations:

a) orbiting around the Earth
b) orbiting around the Moon
c) orbiting around Jupiter
d) in free fall in a vacuum at the surface of the Earth
e) in free fall near the surface of the Moon
f) floating in outer space light years away from any stars

For extra precision this time, I'll add the information that the accelerometer is not spinning.

In all the above situations, the accelerometer will measure zero acceleration.
Yes, but the original point I made, backed up from several sources is that (certainly from a Newtonian perspective) when they measure zero acceleration, that may be because they are not accelerating, or it may be because they are in a gravitational field and "giving in to it", accelerating. Hence, as I said all along, mender's replies were correct, as far as I can see, but - in the words of the accelerometer manual linked to earlier "problematic". {ETA: Bold bits added to correct and clarify}

Someone observered earlier, from c.m. perspective, that when something is changing its velocity by changing direction, as we do in orbit, it is changing its velocity. Hence, in orbit, like in freefall (the two are mathematically and physically identical), we are accelerating. The acceleromter reads 0 because the force of gravity balances the centripetal centrifugal force corresponding to that eliptical motion. {ETA: I know, that's problematic too!} The velocity of an orbiting body, IIRC, describes a path that sweeps equal areas between it and the body it is orbiting over time, which means that Earth/Sun-orbiting comets race past us at great speeds because they are near, and go much slower out in space. They do that by accelerating. I realise you know that, or I {ETA: whoops, that could have sounded bad!} imagine you do, and that you don't dispute that they, like a falling lift, are accelerating.

So, here again we see the problem. Do we not feel the force of gravity when we're accelerating, because the acceleration causes a force that balances it? Or do we accelerate because we feel a force of gravity that is unbalanced? Since they seem to happen at the same time, it's just another description of the same events.

g) Place it on the surface of the earth and it will read 9.8 M/S2 upwards
h) Place it on the surface of the Moon and it will read 1.6 M/S2 upwards

Does anyone (apart from Humber) dispute this?
I do have to correct myself on saying that we 'calibrate' them. They are calibrated for zero net force, or zero acceleration for those who see gravity as an acceleration. I got that completely wrong. In a sense, the 'calibration', the adjustment we do is after the fact, since we usually want to know how much we are increasingly falling or rising in our airplane, and we learn that 1 g up is fine, and zero is not level flight. Hopefully.

I hope it is also clear that if you are in zero g out in space, and can see the stars out the window, and your accelerometer reads zero, the passage of the stars (or not) will remain constant, i.e. you will have no kinetic, linear acceleration. If you then gradually drift into a gravitational field (or as I said, someone magically materialises a planet nearby), and your meter still says zero, the passage of the stars outside will not be constant. You will be accelerating linearly, like a plummeting lift.

So, to not be able to detect the difference between acceleration and gravity, it seems we need to be inside a sphere, not only to make the acceleration-and/or-gravity zero, but so we can't see the stars. As Clive notes, we could also imagine a very large mass, such that the lines of force approach parallel and then we can remain in a +ve g field. We could observe the stars, then, and we could still tell if we're falling or not.

Or could we - maybe that's a bit of a cheat, or only true in Newtonian-sized problems. Einstein was a clever chap, they say, and I'm sure he has some reason for this weird equivalence! The above "correct answers" are "ideal" answers anyway - orbiting round Jupiter, etc., or indeed stationary on Earth, the accelerometer will constantly change, I think, due to the gravitational field strength changing from all the other celestial bodies. And since light also is affected, at cosmic scales, perhaps we can't tell. The position of the stars are no longer fixed, nor their apparent positions.
 
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In physics the event horizon is a definite distance from the center of mass of a black hole. It has no meaning outside of that usage.

Actually it does. There is an event horizon in the frame of an observer who undergoes constant acceleration for all time. It's called a Rindler or Unruh horizon.
 
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In all the above situations, the accelerometer will measure zero acceleration.

Michael, your original question was regarding the value that the accelerometer would show when in these situations. Semantics but maybe part of John's issue. When I answered the questions, I was considering only the reading on the accelerometer, not whether it was capable of measuring the true acceleration. I felt that was your intention.

The ability to examine what is happening inside a "box" while understanding what the "box" is doing is quite important in my eyes. That allows me to separate each of the various parts of the puzzle and understand the purpose of the bricks and the wall (or the forest and the trees).

Dan, was your GP reference meant to be a general shot at puppeteers (sock or otherwise), or an implication that humber is the leader here (hindmost)?
 
This seems much more natural and in line with other sources than what I get from reading Dan_O and Michael_C's earlier explanations to John Freestone, although you can obviously look at a lot of this from different perspectives and still "make sense of it".

Would it help if we instead used Ockham's reference frame which is defined as where the simplest laws of motion apply?
 
Well, these two "impossible" questions seem to have stumped humber, anyone else want to give it a try?

Sure - why not? I'm sure humber will correct me if (when) I get it wrong.

1) A parachute is tied to the ground in a 30 ft/s wind. For an arbitrary parachute size, the tension on the tether is say 100 lbs. What will the tension be in a 60 ft/s wind?

400 lbs.


2) A parachute is attached to a 100 lb load and is falling through the air at a steady 30 ft/s. What will the steady state speed be if the 100 lb load is replaced with a 200 lb load?

42.4 ft/s
 
Wrong again humber. In physics the event horizon is a definite distance from the center of mass of a black hole. It has no meaning outside of that usage. You do not enter into a planets gravitational gradient, you are always in it. If a planet is sufficiently far away you can ignore its gravitational field, but it is always there.

It looks like we can add "event horizon" to the long list of terms Humber has used without having any idea what they mean.
 
Would it help if we instead used Ockham's reference frame which is defined as where the simplest laws of motion apply?
I'm happy to do that. I don't mind if anyone wants to use a more complex one than necessary. Sometimes it's useful to state the context.

I just found a funny thing looking at William of Ockham at wikipedia. Apparently his version of what we know as "Occam's Razor" translates something like: "For nothing ought to be posited without a reason given, unless it is self-evident (literally, known through itself) or known by experience or proved by the authority of Sacred Scripture.”

The entry continues: "For Ockham, the only truly necessary entity is God; everything else is contingent." I wonder how many times Occam's Razor is given as a reason not to posit a God! :)
 
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