"No free will" is the most parsimonious explanation. The laws of physics are sufficient to explain the brain. Adding free will adds an extra element for which there is no evidence. Occam does not like that.
What you're doing here is exactly what you (wrongly) accuse me of doing in the next bit.
You're saying 'The principle of parsimony tells us what is true, because truth is parsimonious'. That is a circularly reasoned prejudice, nothing more.
But seeing as you believe in the principle it is certainly not clear which side parsimony would fall on in the FW-Determinism debate.
If complete determinism were the case a truth-is-parsimonious position is incapable of explaining the origin and continued existence of the universal experience of being free to choose.
You sir, are a question-begging maestro. Most circular reasoning goes something like this:
question:How Do We Know the Bible is Accurate?
1)It is written in the Bible that the Bible is the word of God.
2)The word of God is always truthful and accurate.
Answer: Therefore the Bible is Accurate.
You, on the other hand, go even farther:
Q:How do we know we have free choices?
1) We have free choices.
Answer: Therefore we have free choices.
Incorrect. We have the universal feeling that we make free choices. In your worldview that universal feeling is incongruous and requires an evidenced explanation rather than simple philosophical assumption.
You use something even worse than circular reasoning, you are using singularity reasoning. Yet you have the audacity to call my position one of "blind-faith".
Yes, it's blind faith. My position has some evidence (all of human experience). Your position has no evidence, and is only believed in a philosophical sense by some people because it fits with their overall belief system. But in everyday life these people show every sign of contradicting their stated beliefs, by consistently acting in a manner contrary to these beliefs.. e.g. acting in a way which strongly suggests they believe humans actually
are morally responsible for their actions.
I remember some time ago you being probably justifiedly angry at Sunni Man. If Sunni Man's actions were simply physical laws playing themselves out why be angry at Sunni? It wasn't his fault, after all.
You might as well equally blame electricity for his views.
We desire freedom for the same reason we desire food or water, it is useful to our surival. The desire originates and is sustained by the brain.
But according to you there is no freedom. So how could a desire for it be useful in any way? Food and water provide a measurable physical benefit to the organism, and are therefore useful (essential) to survival. Therefore desiring food and water is of clear benefit.
How does a desire for (illusory) freedom provide any physical benefit to the organism?
Imagine a Universe just like ours, which is completely determined, but the humans in it have no sense that they are making free decisions.
What is added to that Universe by giving those humans an illusory sense that they are making free decisions?
Of what possible benefit would that be?
Which is irrelevant to the truth of the free will but ok.
Not irrelevant. A and B are related.
If you hold an unevidenced belief regarding A which results in complete absurdity in B then that ought to make you re-examine your belief in regard to A.
And I am obeying physical law in my attempt to stop him so I don't need to explain a deep, metaphysical "why" for him OR me.
Which would be the better course of action? To stop him or to help him?
Because human behavior can be modified and controlled through imprisonment and rehabilitation.
Boulders tend to obey the laws of gravity no matter how long they spend in jail. Human brain chemistry, on the other hand, makes connections between certain actions and certain consequences.
That's silly. Epilepsy isn't cured by prison time. Courts recognize a sliding scale with mens rea because we know that some criminal acts are more likely to recur and also that some respond better to incarceration.
You'll note that I mentioned in both examples that the perpetrator dies during the act. Who/what was responsible for those acts? The shooter or the gun? Equally so? Or does it only make sense to say that the shooter was responsible, and not the gun?
The only non-absurd option is to say that the shooter was responsible and culpable, and this is because we all recognize implicitly that we make free moral choices.
If the gun jammed would it be sensible or absurd to praise the gun for this act of mercy on its part?
Why would I make my determinations about objective reality based on what I want? Reality doesn't care what make me feel good.
What makes you feel good is having a belief on the FW-Determinism issue which fits in with your overall worldview. So you blindly believe in complete determinism, even in the face of all of human experience being to the contrary, and having no evidence for your own position, and it leading to moral absurdity. I'd say it's actually you who is trying to bend reality to what you want to be the case.
Do you at least understand why I called your position "wish-thinking" now?
see above.