Ichneumonwasp
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- Feb 2, 2006
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I agree that the Eucharist is symbolically represented throughout the Gospel, but I don’t believe it’s due to redundancy that the author doesn't have Jesus institute the ritual at John’s version of the Last Supper.
The Gospel points to faith in Jesus (which is the same as faith in God) as what will bring salvation. No rituals, hereditary customs, the teachings of the Temple elite (or the teachings of the Synoptics or Gospel of Thomas) can save you. The Johannine Community wanted to develop a higher Christology. They have to show he continues and then supplants Mosaic tradition, so he is the final Passover Lamb. His work is done. The work gives meaning to the rituals of baptism and the Eucharist, without explicitly commanding their institution, because the ultimate source of both sacraments is Jesus. The Eucharist, as established in the Synoptics, is done to remember Jesus’ sacrifice and death until he returns. In the Gospel of John, again, his work is done. He’s not coming back.
Yes, that's what I was trying to say but didn't say very well. I would only add that the Eucharist, as I see it for that group, is a way of participating in that final sacrifice.
COLOR=black]You can get a sense of what was going on at the early Eucharist celebrations in 1st Corinthians 11:17-34. Scholars date this letter around the early 50s CE. Paul was not happy...[/COLOR]
Yep, precisely -- that is just the passage to which I was referring. I've been wondering lately and would love yours and Hokulele's input -- do you think that the early Jesus communities might have seen those group meals as commemeration of a new Passover? One that had not yet occurred?