Homosexuality in Psychology

Frozenwolf150

Formerly SilentKnight
Joined
Dec 10, 2007
Messages
4,134
I wasn't sure whether this should go in Science or Social Issues. I've been trying to dig up something on this strictly for information's sake with respect to a research paper, but I haven't found anything that has the specific answers I'm looking for. My two questions:

Why was homosexuality declassified as a mental disorder in 1973?
Why was homosexuality ever classified as one in the first place?

The wikipedia article was downright useless, as it only talked about the fact that homosexuality is studied and why, but not the motivations behind the classification or declassification. I got a hit on a JAMA article, but you need an online subscription just to read it. If anyone knows anything about this or where I can read up on it, I'd appreciate it.
 
Why was homosexuality declassified as a mental disorder in 1973?


Because so many psych doctors are gay.

Also a remarkable number of history's villains had sexual problems. It is thought that validating deviance will make them less angry and destructive toward society. Fewer pshycho killers at all levels of class.

Why was homosexuality ever classified as one in the first place?


To protect women. See above.
 
Because so many psych doctors are gay.

Also a remarkable number of history's villains had sexual problems. It is thought that validating deviance will make them less angry and destructive toward society. Fewer pshycho killers at all levels of class.




To protect women. See above.

Evidence?
 
I wasn't sure whether this should go in Science or Social Issues. I've been trying to dig up something on this strictly for information's sake with respect to a research paper, but I haven't found anything that has the specific answers I'm looking for. My two questions:

Why was homosexuality declassified as a mental disorder in 1973?
Why was homosexuality ever classified as one in the first place?

The wikipedia article was downright useless, as it only talked about the fact that homosexuality is studied and why, but not the motivations behind the classification or declassification. I got a hit on a JAMA article, but you need an online subscription just to read it. If anyone knows anything about this or where I can read up on it, I'd appreciate it.

Silentknight:

Perhaps you may find this useful:
http://www.aglp.org/gap/1_history/#analysis

There's also a section on how it came to be declassified.
 
I'm answering from memory, so I might well have things wrong. I am sure Wikipedia, google and numerous posters will be happy to correct me.

Why was homosexuality declassified as a mental disorder in 1973?

Simple answer: Because it's not a disorder. ;)

Apparently, there are tests that you can submit people to that will indicate that they suffer from a mental disorder. (I'm thinking something general like a Rorschach inkblot test, nothing too specific, though.)

Somebody decided to be scientific about the issue and tested homosexuals and found that they performed no better or worse than heterosexuals. Hence, there was no apparent reason to assume that homosexuality was a disorder.

Googling for Dr. Evelyn Hooker might help you to find out more.

Why was homosexuality ever classified as one in the first place?

Because it's icky. Those people are sick. Obviously, no healthy person would ever want to do that. Eew!

Of course, it helps to keep telling people that they are mentally ill, punish or institutionalize them, too. Then, once you have successfully marginalized a phenomenon, you'll only ever encounter it in people who are mentally ill because everybody else will be hiding it.
 
I wasn't sure whether this should go in Science or Social Issues. I've been trying to dig up something on this strictly for information's sake with respect to a research paper, but I haven't found anything that has the specific answers I'm looking for. My two questions:

Why was homosexuality declassified as a mental disorder in 1973?
Why was homosexuality ever classified as one in the first place?
Because of the social matrix that the psychiatry movement started in. It was classified as a sin in some cultures. It became an 'illness' with the advent of psyciatry.

This is kind of an interesting listen, a great episode of 'This American Life'.
http://www.thislife.org/Radio_Episode.aspx?episode=204
 
Last edited:
Because so many psych doctors are gay.

Also a remarkable number of history's villains had sexual problems. It is thought that validating deviance will make them less angry and destructive toward society. Fewer pshycho killers at all levels of class.




To protect women. See above.

Citations, evidence?
 
I saw some other stuff that looked questionable. Freud disowned his own theories as he got older. As the repression of women's identities and sexuality changed, he said that their symptoms changed. Of course I wonder about the effects of all the different 'medicines' at the time. Strychnine for stomach aches and all that.
 
I saw some other stuff that looked questionable. Freud disowned his own theories as he got older. As the repression of women's identities and sexuality changed, he said that their symptoms changed. Of course I wonder about the effects of all the different 'medicines' at the time. Strychnine for stomach aches and all that.

Indeed. Good point.

As an aside, reading some of these posts (e.g., the one by interwaff that you responded to above) can be admittedly tricky for me. I honestly have a tough time telling if some people are actually being serious or if they are being flippant, purposefully provocative, or whatever.
 
I honestly have a tough time telling if some people are actually being serious or if they are being flippant, purposefully provocative, or whatever.


I mean everything I say, almost, but never to the degree with which I say it.

There's no other way to make my point without sounding... "intellectual". :drool:
 
I mean everything I say, almost, but never to the degree with which I say it.

There's no other way to make my point without sounding... "intellectual". :drool:

How about providing your sources and their data, your statements are not backed by your sources. they seem outrageous and suffering from some bizzare bias. try citing your sources and the reasons for your statements, then we can look at the sampling, the rationales and the data.

Slamming intelectuals, that is an appeal to common stupidity.
 
Why was homosexuality declassified as a mental disorder in 1973?

I assume you mean in the USA. Because back in 1973 it had become possible, for a brief few years, to examine social issues rationally. They abolished the death penalty for a while around then too.

Why was homosexuality ever classified as one in the first place?

Because men are normally insecure about their sexuality and feel challenged and threatened by someone who doesn't pretend to be "normal".
 
Because men are normally insecure about their sexuality and feel challenged and threatened by someone who doesn't pretend to be "normal".


Why should they feel threatened by someone who wants to take them away from their wives and feminize their male offspring?
 
Why should they feel threatened by someone who wants to take them away from their wives and feminize their male offspring?

Again, what is your source for this behavior.

I think you are a bigot who just makes assumption.

Do you want to take other people spouses?

What about butch gay men? Do they want to masculinize girls?

Are you joking or just a bigot?
 
Why should they feel threatened by someone who wants to take them away from their wives and feminize their male offspring?

Again, what is your source for this behavior.

I think you are a bigot who just makes assumption.

Do you want to take other people spouses?

What about butch gay men? Do they want to masculinize girls?

Are you joking or just a bigot?

yeah, interwaff. You have to have at least 500 posts to get your Pith license.

Before then, it's impossible to tell if you're a homophobe (like good ol' Sunni Man) or joking.
 
http://psychology.ucdavis.edu/rainbow/html/facts_mental_health.html

...

Confronted with overwhelming empirical evidence and changing cultural views of homosexuality, psychiatrists and psychologists radically altered their views, beginning in the 1970s.


Removal from the DSM In 1973, the weight of empirical data, coupled with changing social norms and the development of a politically active gay community in the United States, led the Board of Directors of the American Psychiatric Association to remove homosexuality from the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). Some psychiatrists who fiercely opposed their action subsequently circulated a petition calling for a vote on the issue by the Association's membership. That vote was held in 1974, and the Board's decision was ratified.

...

ETA: The text prior to the quoted section above explains why it was considered a mental illness.
 
Last edited:
http://psychology.ucdavis.edu/rainbow/html/facts_mental_health.html

ETA: The text prior to the quoted section above explains why it was considered a mental illness.

I already found that source numerous times, and it's got an extensive amount of information on the subject, thanks, but I still wanted something that didn't sound as biased. I've gone with some of the previously named sources for my works cited page. (Yes, this is for school.) My revisions are finished for the time being, so again, thanks to everyone who responded to my questions.


I honestly didn't mind if this topic drifted into a debate, since my purpose was to examine arguments on both sides of the issue. With that in mind, I'm going to echo the response to interwaff's assertions. This is a skeptic forum. You're going to have to do better than simply asserting things and appealing to anti-intellectualism. Cite your sources and back up what you say with credible authority or logical argumentation. Nobody's going to lower their opinion of you for attempting to support or legitimize your arguments. The same however can't be said for being deliberately obtuse.
 
Makers of the MMPI (which is probably the best test ever designed) once included a homosexuality scale-- the intent was to diagnose whether the test taker was gay.

They normed it on combat soldiers on the one extreme versus secretaries (IIRC) on the other.

It didn't work.
 

Back
Top Bottom