If you understand that any set cannot be defined unless it is a result of non-locality\locality interaction (where this interaction cannot be but an intermediate result of opposite totalities, called total-isolation and total-connectivity) then you can understand why any set is incomplete by definition.
Yes, Doron, "incomplete" in the sense, definition, and context in which you are using it above.
But you understand don't you that the word, "complete" is used in a conventional way in which a set is said to be complete.
The set of all natural numbers greater than 2 and less than 4, {3}, is complete containing all it's defintion requires.
Now if you wish to insist that there is no such sense a set is complete, you claim a confusing dogmatism.
What I wish of you is a clarity of definition and qualification that shows how a set in your terminology is incomplete, but to its purpose is complete.
Of course no set is in its content the Totality. But it may be total as per its defined and required content.
You do make that distinction in usage, don't you?