I think you have this the wrong way around. When you make ad-hom attacks and strawman then all I will do is point out that you have made ad-hom attacks and strawmen, I am not going to waste anytime arguing against fallacies.
How could
I be making strawman arguments? All I have been doing is presenting MY arguments and defending them. I have not attacked anyone else's arguments, so how could I have made a strawman of them?????
Originally Posted by SaulOhio
...snip...
The only answer you have given me to my claims is to tell me I am ignorant of the history. I have heard PLENTY about the history of working conditions in the 19th century. But none of it gives me any reason to believe that it was the laws that really made the difference.
...snip...
OK lets start again, what
evidence leads you to form that conclusion?
I didn;t say evidence leads me to form that conclusion. I said there is a LACK of evidence for the conclusion that the labor laws made a big difference. I posted that whole list of countries with heavy labor regulation, and all of them still have sweat shops, child labor, and poverty. The laws are difficult to enforce, because of the economics of the situation. All because of the factors I explained in the post you dimissed as a joke.
Read what I posted, the part you quoted above, and see again what I am arguing. I have not come to a conclusion. I am saying there is no evidence for a conclusion, other than perhapse the post-hoc fallacy.
Hmm... Good a place to start with would be looking up the word "humour" (or humor in an USA dictionary). And then reading the words I posted.
If you respond to one of my arguments with a joke, how am I supposed to respond? Its not an argument. I did recognize it as a joke, a bad, tasteless joke that still implies that you believe libertarians don't think the bad working conditions of the 19th century are a bad thing.
But I have addressed what you have posted i.e. your strawmen, your ad-hom attacks and your apparent ignorance of historic fact.
What ad-hominems? What strawmen? And which historic facts?
There is ONE thing I said that might be misconstrued as an ad-hominem, and I have already apoligized for it. But your obsession with MY ad-hominems seems like the bad cop who ignores his friend's drunk driving and careening all over the sidewalk so he can harass a guy he doesn't like over a burned out tail-light. I have been the target of ad-hominems daily since I joined this fourm, and you have sat by and did nothing, I make one argument that could, MAYBE be called an ad-hominem if interpreted the wrong way, and you are all over me.
As I said above - lets start from the beginning what evidence has lead you to the conclusion that legislation did not alter working conditions in the 19th century?
Did you read my last post? The one where I listed countries with strong labor regulations, but which still have bad working conditions?
Or maybe try responding to my post
#173 with some actual argument, besides dismissing it as a joke without argument. What do you say about the economic principles I described?
As for the 19th century, I have already said, there is no actual evidence, except maybe the post-hoc fallacy.
I have read some extreme cases, like that highrise fire that killed a lot of people, which led to improvements in the safety fire codes. I do not disapprove of those improvements. When people die from an employer's negligence, it can be considered a form of initiation of force. I have conceeded that already on this thread. However, most of the improvements in workplace safety come from economic and technological improvements and negotiation between workers and employers. As I said before, any improvement in workplace safety comes as a tradeoff from lower wages.