Meadmaker
Unregistered
- Joined
- Apr 27, 2004
- Messages
- 29,033
I've been looking around trying to find explanations for the current mess.
The left tends to blame deregulation. Can anyone cite examples of existing regulations that were repealed, modified, or not enforced by the Bush administration?
I found one of them. There had been a requirement for investment banks to maintain reserves against loss at 15:1. That was repealed, and the investment banks that were hit hard were much more highly leveraged than that. That seems like a horrible idea, but not enough to cause a crisis.
We know that, for some reason, some time around 2003-2005, mortgage brokers stopped asking for down payments, started issuing more ARM loans, created interest only loans, and in other ways took the brakes off people borrowing money for homes. Meanwhile, issuers of mortgage backed securities started packaging loans that previously they wouldn't have touched.
Why did they start then, and why hadn't they done it before? Were regulations repealed or modified that suddenly allowed these practices, whereas before they had been illegal? Are there specific cases we can point to and say that modification of this regulation or that regulation changed the market's behavior?
The left tends to blame deregulation. Can anyone cite examples of existing regulations that were repealed, modified, or not enforced by the Bush administration?
I found one of them. There had been a requirement for investment banks to maintain reserves against loss at 15:1. That was repealed, and the investment banks that were hit hard were much more highly leveraged than that. That seems like a horrible idea, but not enough to cause a crisis.
We know that, for some reason, some time around 2003-2005, mortgage brokers stopped asking for down payments, started issuing more ARM loans, created interest only loans, and in other ways took the brakes off people borrowing money for homes. Meanwhile, issuers of mortgage backed securities started packaging loans that previously they wouldn't have touched.
Why did they start then, and why hadn't they done it before? Were regulations repealed or modified that suddenly allowed these practices, whereas before they had been illegal? Are there specific cases we can point to and say that modification of this regulation or that regulation changed the market's behavior?

