Your ignorance and bigotry show yet again. Famines mostly happen when people cannot afford to buy food, not because of actual physical lack of food, as you would know had you done the slightest bit of research into famine economics;
Um, people can't afford to buy something when it is scarce. When food is scarce, that's usually the result of a famine. You appear to have confused the cause with the effect - famines cause high food prices, not the other way around.
India does not equal the Third World as your crappy little argument implies;
My "crappy little argument" implies nothing of the kind. Here, read the last paragraph of that post. I would say read it again, but that would presume you had already read it once, a presumption I see no evidence to support:
Read This said:
When I was growing up, we learned in sixth grade that both India and China were prone to famine and full of starving people. Something has changed since I was in sixth grade. Do you think Paul Krugman might have a clue what that might be?
I was in sixth grade in 1962, and believe me when I tell you India
was a third world country in 1962.
and oddly enough, farming demands more skill than you think, and you obviously don't know much about that at all either.
When did farming become rocket science? In most of the world,
homo sapiens learned how to farm before he learned how to write.
Countries suffer famines largely because of catastrophic economic policies. When China and India decided to jettison communism and socialism for Adam Smith, they suddenly became able to feed themselves. Israel exports food even though it's in the middle of the stinking desert and surrounded by neighbors trying to destroy it, while North Korea is apparently in a state of perpetual famine. Show me a starving capitalist country.
But don't let that stop you from making ignorant put-downs for the sake of your ego.
A little more evidence and a little less speculative invective would serve you well, Gurdur.