I just have one small quibble with this analogy. In the case of the definition of an atom, it has been adjusted towards whatever model the new evidence uncovers. Each piece of evidence leads to a greater understanding of the atom. The definition of god always seems to be adjusted away from new evidence (e.g., "god of the gaps"). Each piece of evidence leads to knowing less about god.
I wouldn't agree about the evidence leading us to know less about god. I would say the opposite. We know that god, if one exists, does not intervene in this world in any way we are able to objectively measure. I think that tells us a lot. I just don't have the same certainly you do about concluding that no god exists based on that fact. It's a very reasonable conclusion, just not the
only reasonable conclusion.
You are confusing the special rules applied to god beliefs with changing paradigms about the natural world as new evidence emerges.
Huh? I'm telling you I consider the changes in god beliefs to those espoused by most of the theists in their thread to be an example of a changing paradigm just as the changes in atom beliefs are. If it's a 'special rule' as you term it, it's not unique to god beliefs, but to many other beliefsm, such at atom beliefs and shape-of-the-earth beliefs.
There really is no comparison here even with the most stretching fathomable. In one case you suspend the rules just for your special god belief and in the other case you simply shift your paradigm but all the while the rules of determining the real world stay the same.
I just disagree with this. It seems to me that God beliefs are an instance of such a shift of paradigm. I guess we will just have to disagree on this as I know of no test for what is or isn't a 'shifting paradigm'
I don't have an issue with the constructed agnosticism of saying we might one day discover gods exist. We might also find invisible pink unicorns. What concerns me is when it comes to these two possibilities of future discovery, they are not really treated as equally agnostic positions. Many skeptics verbalize the agnosticism about invisible pink unicorns but give it no special consideration other than verbalization. With god beliefs, however, some skeptics change the practical definition of gods (that is, gods who do interact with the Universe) to a special definition of gods (gods who don't interact with the Universe) and give god beliefs special consideration despite the fact no god beliefs in human history started as beliefs in gods who don't interact with the Universe.
I seem to recall discussing this at length in another thread. I think you were participating there too. There simply is NOT the same evidence for IPU's as there is for some sort of god. There is an abudance of non-objective testimomial evidence for the existance of some sort of god. Evidence that is consistent in some respects across cultures and over time. There is no such evidence for IPU's.
Is the evidence for god objective or repeatable? No.
Does the IPU have similar subjective testimonial evidence? No.
Is the evidence for god and the IPU the same? No
Therefore, it is quite reasonable to treat the two propositions as different based on the differing amount of evidence for each.
And it's unskeptical enough that skeptical god believers do this, but skeptical agnostics give a pass to the special rules as well. And they do so without actually considering the issues involved in making up the special rules.
Whereas, I consider it unskeptical to entirely reject the testimonial evidence of so many people across so many cultures and over the entire history of the human race.
Is it reasonable to assume they are all mistaken and no gods exist? Yes. That's an entirely reasonable and rational conclusion.
Is it reasonable to assume that they are not all mistaken, that some real phenomena underlies all the different types of human experiences with god? Yes. That's an entirely reasonable and rational conclusion.
Yes, I realize that those are mutually exclusive conclusions. They can't both be true. But I consider myself an agnostic because I personally find both conclusions reasonable. I don't really find them equally likely, but as I sway from one side to other on a regular basis and can't seem to come to a firm conclusion one way or the other.
Where did the idea of the unfalsifiable god come from?
I think it came from falsifing so many other gods and still needing an explanation for the god experiences of so many people. But that's just my opinion.
It didn't come from actual god beliefs. It came as the result of failing to find evidence of any real gods, so the definition of gods were changed and the whole claim of 'faith' and 'inner feelings' or whatever it gets labeled as was literally invented as a way to side step the mounting lack of evidence real gods exist.
The definition of atom was changed based on new evidence. The definition of god was changed to side step the mounting evidence god beliefs were not supported by the evidence.
This is just a way of saying both were changed based on new evidence and throwing in some disparagement about god beliefs? I could say, for example "the definition of the atom was changeed to side step the mounting evidence that belief that atoms are non-divisible was not supported by the evidence". The definitions of both were changed based on new evidence. Why do you consider that a problem for god but not the atom?