RandFan
Mormon Atheist
- Joined
- Dec 18, 2001
- Messages
- 60,135
Ok, so Joseph Smith didn't speak in that dialect and the authors of the BOM didn't either. So why is it translated that way?Technically, not really, because it isn't grammatical. It's sort of a pseudo-Elizabethan version, almost as if a 19th century fellow with no real knowledge of archaic grammar was trying to imitate the language of the King James Bible.
I actually know the explanation.
"The word of the LORD came again unto me, saying, Moreover, thou son of man, take thee one stick, and write upon it, For Judah, and for the children of Israel his companions: then take another stick and write upon it, For Joseph, the stick of Ephraim and for all the house of Israel his companions: And join them one to another into one stick; and they shall be one in thine hand. And when the children of thy people shall speak unto thee, saying, Wilt thou not show us what thou meanest by these? Say unto them, Thus saith the LORD God; Behold, I will take the stick of Joseph, which is in the hand of Ephraim, and the tribes of Israel his companions, and I will put them with him, even the stick of Judah, and they shall be one in mine hand." --Ezekiel 37:15-19
"And thou shalt be brought down, and shalt speak out of the ground, and thy speech shall be low out of the dust, and thy voice shall be, as of one that hath a familiar spirit, out of the ground, and thy speech shall whisper out of the dust." Isaiah 29:4
So, the BOM is a history of the tribe of Joseph and it has a familiar spirit.
Translating the BOM to read in similar style to the translation of the Bible gives it that familiar spirit. Joseph Smith was fulfilling the prophecy.
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