If something is implausible in case X, it may well be plausible in case Y. That is my sole argument with you here ,and I don't see how you can possibly refute it.
I dont refute it - you have just shifted the definition in terms of the way I used the term 'implausible'. You are being more than a little disingenuous on this matter. It is clear (if you read the paper and my points above) that the collective evidence (that's collective evidence) makes the infrasound account (IS) implausible - period - at least at the theory has currently been suggested. I use the term implausible to count for cases x and y.
What you struggle with is you keep trying to argue for a caveat on the scope of implausibility. This is a caveat I do not share. If I thought IS had any application to a minority of cases then i would have said so - by describing the theory as, limited, not implausible. Now, I suggest you find a case y for IS and come back. Even a reasoned case would do.
By having a condition that is plausible in case Y it is, in my opinion, misleading to even use the phrase 'implausible' at all (even under seletive instances) - and i would never use that terminology under such cases. Indeed I know of no one that would. This is evidenced further by the fact that the word 'implausible' is not frequenctly banded about in science and one needs a really good set of reasons for using it.
All one simply needs to show (in reality) are the conditions that are both necessary and sufficient for the effect to occur. These would constitute the degrees of freedom for the effect and the account. One can then sketch out the context for how the account is supposed to work in an optimal manner.
I note you still have not made the case for an implausible account having a plausible effect
Not true. I said in this particular (instance) I agreed, as i keep saying it's your claim ---
No - its Tandy's claim it works - I'm the one questioning it.
that I have a problem with!
The statement "I am a parapsychologist" you might make is implausible in the human condition. It does not prove that parapsychology doe not happen to less than 1% of humans however.
No science involved: just pure formal logic...
I dont know where you learned your logic - but I would ask for my money back if i were you.
I would never make an argument like you are using here and it adds nothing to the debate - yet again you keep recruiting totally irrelevant analogies to try to illustrate your case. So you see, its not pure anything, it is, if anything, quite poor.
It does not prove that it does happen to that 1% either (argument to ignorance?).
You forget that I am arguing with evidence and a
reasoned case - you just appear to keep making statements. These are not the same thing.
In my opinion, your argument fudges distinctions and terminology that I never made, goes around in circles and uses irrelevant analogies that do not support your case. I thought you were against misrepresentation of debate?????
Ah well......
Why not make your case for 'Y' within the argument for infrasound without trying to generate irrelevant analogies all the time that do not serve you well.